Bible Query from Matthew
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Questions that are common to both Matthew and other gospels are discussed in Matthew or else are in the Gospels section.
Q: In Mt, what are some of the distinctive elements of this gospel?
A: Matthew emphasizes Christ the Promised King, who ushers in the kingdom of God and is the fulfillment of the law. Christ is the fulfilled hope. Of all the gospel writers, Matthew is the one who shows the most how Old Testament prophecies are fulfilled in Christ. About 1/3 of Matthew is preaching, and the gospel appears organized around five great discourses.
As far as language goes, Papias, a disciple of the apostle John, said that Matthew was first written in Hebrew/Aramaic. Jesus is the "type" of Israel, and some see Matthew using Midrashic techniques familiar to Jews of this time.
As for false religions, Matthew 20:1-16 is a good passage to explain to Mormons and Jehovah’s Witnesses about grace. Matthew 18:21-35 is also good to show Mormons that there is no way we can even begin to pay Jesus back for His grace with our good works.
Q: In Mt, how were some of the prophecies mentioned in this book about Christ?
A: Before answering the question, let's first list a few of the prophecies in question.
1. God calling Israel’s children out of Egypt (Hosea 11:1; Matthew 2:15)
2. Rachel weeping for her children at Rama (Jeremiah 31:15; Matthew 2:18)
3. Prophecy about Zebulun and Naphtali (Isaiah 9:1,2; Matthew 4:15-16)
4. Paying Zechariah 30 silver pieces and giving them to the potter (Zechariah 11:12-13; Jeremiah 32:6-9, Matthew 27:9-10)
The answer: Matthew, more than the other Gospels, was written to a Jewish audience that was familiar with the Old Testament, and with Midrashic methods. The early church father Papias wrote that Matthew was originally written in Hebrew, not Greek. Matthew, in referring to children coming out of Egypt, Rachel weeping for her children, etc. is doing something deliberate here. He is showing how the life of Israel’s Messiah parallels the life of the children of Israel. We may think of prophecy just as solitary predicted details that come true, but that is too limited a view. Matthew shows that the life of the children of Israel, in general was a prophecy of Jesus.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.344-345 and Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.168 for more info.
Q: In Mt 1, what was the point of the genealogy of Joseph's ancestry back to David, since Mary was a virgin when Jesus was born?
A: Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.780 raises this issue. While Joseph was not the biological father of Jesus, Joseph was in every way the legal father of Jesus. Thus the promises to David were fulfilled in both a legal father/son sense, as well as a biological sense through Mary's ancestry in Luke.
Q: In Mt 1:5, since David’s grandmother was Ruth the Moabite, how could David be with the congregation, since Dt 23:3 says a Moabite cannot enter the congregation down to the tenth generation?
A: First two points not related to the answer, and then the answer.
1. Even if David being with the congregation was against Deuteronomy 23:3, the Bible still records that David was with the people and worshipped with them. People could do wrong things out of ignorance. For example, Joshua made a treaty with the Gibeonites, and that was against God’s Law. Once that was done, God wanted them to honor the treaty though. Indeed, God in his providence allowed them to make this error and used the Gibeonites later.
However, one can argue that David did not disobey Deuteronomy 23:3 here.
2. People traced their descent from their father’s side, not their mothers. Thus is it probable (but not certain) that Deuteronomy 23:3 would be intended to apply only to male ancestors.
3. Ruth "changed peoples". She told Naomi that your people will be my people and your God my God. While people today can change citizenship if both they and the people of the new country agree, this was even more dramatic; God permitted her, like Rahab, to become one of the chosen of Israel.
Q: In Mt 1:8, was Joram the father of Uzziah, or was he the great-great-grandfather in 1 Chr 3:11-12?
A: Actually both, given a proper understanding of how the words were used. The Jews understood Father to also mean ancestor, just as son also meant descendent.
King Joram was the great-great-grandfather of King Uzzah. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.58 for more info.
Q: In Mt 1:17, was this really 3 x 14 generations, or only 41 generations, as an atheist (Capello) and the skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.777-778 say?
A: There are three sets of 14 names, but they are not additive, as the first list is Abraham up through and including David, and the second list is David to the exile. Now we might have a problem if Matthew had claimed there were 42 generations, but Matthew never said the sum was 42. Matthew presumably mentioned in passing three sets of 14 names as a memory device.
Q: In Mt 1:17 and Lk 1, why do the genealogies diverge after Solomon, but come together again in Shealtiel?
A: The skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.939 mentions this. Matthew 1:12 says Jeconiah (Jehoiachin), Shealtiel, and Zerubbabel, while Luke says Neri, Shealtiel, and Zerubbabel. The direct reason for the difference is given in 1 Chronicles 4:17-19. The royal line, which almost always passed from father to son, passed instead from Shealtiel to Zerubbabel, the son of Pedaiah, Shealtiel's brother.
The reason is not given, but is presumably Shealtiel did not have any sons, or at least living sons, when he died. Thus Shealtiel likely adopted his brother's son. Scholars think either that Pedaiah died and Shealtiel adopted Zerubbabel as an orphan, or else Shealtiel passed the royal line to Zerubbabel simply because he had no sons.
Q: Does Mt 1:23 mistranslate Isa 7:14 by using the word "virgin" as the skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.781 says?
A: No. Not only can the Hebrew word mean either "virgin" or "young maiden", but Asimov on p.780 himself recognized that the Septuagint translated this word as parthenos meaning virgin. Of course, Asimov does not believe in any miracles of the Bible, so he would not choose to believe that the Isaiah would refer to a virgin.
Q: In Mt 1:23 why are there 27 generations from David to Jesus, while Lk 1:3:23-31 gives 42 generations?
A: While there are not necessarily the exact same number of generations on Joseph's and Mary's family tree, Matthew undoubtedly has some gaps. Since "son" can mean male descendents, there is no problem here. Jeconiah (Jehoiachin) reigned about 604 B.C., so there were 14 generations from David to Jeconiah in about 400 years, or 29 years per generation. From 604 B.C. to 4 B.C. one would expect 20 1/2 generations, and Matthew only gives 13, or 46 years per generation.
Perhaps Matthew did not name more than 14 generations after the exile because Matthew did not know the other names, and he only wrote of what he knew.
Q: In Mt 1:23 and Lk 1:26-35, how could Jesus, born of a virgin, be descended from David?
A: Three points to consider in the answer.
1. Jesus was not the biological son of Joseph. If he had been, Jeremiah 29:32 would be a false prophecy.
2. Jesus was the son of Joseph in the eyes of the law. Today, a man who marries a woman with a child becomes the father of the child in the eyes of the law, though he is not the biological father.
3. Jesus was the biological son of Mary.
Jesus was of the house of David in the eyes of the law through Joseph, and Jesus was biologically from David through Mary.
Q: In Mt 1:25, did Mary have any other children?
A: This verse would be both meaningless and misleading if Joseph and Mary never had intimate relations.
In addition to this verse, Matthew 13:55-56; Mark 6:4; Galatians 1:19; and Jude 1 also record that Jesus had brothers. Eusebius’ Ecclesiastical History (c.360 A.D.) 2:23 and 3:20 also says that Jesus’ four brothers were James (called the Just), Joses (or Joseph), Judas, and Simon.
One Catholic answer is that Joseph had children by a prior marriage, but not Mary. However, there is no evidence from church history that Joseph was married before, or that any of Jesus’ brothers were not by Mary and Joseph.
Another Catholic answer is that "brothers" in Mediterranean cultures could mean cousins and close relatives of similar age, and not just immediate brothers. However, applying what might be true for later Italians and other peoples to the Israelites is problematic
One of the earliest people to preach the error that Mary had no children was Ambrose (340-397 A.D.) (Letter 63:110-111). However, Ambrose was clear that Jesus needed no assistance to mediate between man and God, and Mary was not to be adored (On the Holy Spirit 3:80).
Q: In Mt 2:1-4,9-12, exactly how many magi were there?
A: Scripture never says. People often think three simply because of the song "We Three Kings of Orient Are", but it could have been any number.
Q: In Mt 2:6, how do you pronounce Magi?
A: It is pronounced "MA-ji" with both vowels long according to the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary.
Q: In Mt 2:1-4,9-12, who were the magi?
A: The Magi were Mideastern religious men who practiced astrology. While the Bible does not specify that there were three Magi, there are three views of who the "Christmas magi" were.
Originally, as the Levites were a tribe of priests among the Israelites, the later Magi were the tribe of priests among the Medes, according to Herodotus. This is analogous to the Levites being a tribe of priests among the Israelites. The Magi offered sacrifices before fires, interpreted dreams, and practiced astrology. While we get the English word "magician" from "Magi", except for a passage in Herodotus there is no evidence that they practiced magic. The Medes were polytheistic (not Zoroastrian). When Daniel 5:11 speaks of Magi, it is these Magi.
Later, after a Magi who was called "false Bardiya" took control of the Persian throne for seven months in 522 B.C., King Cambyses replaced many of the Median Magi with Persian Magi. The Persian Magi were Zoroastrians. Zoroastrians believed in equal and opposite divine beings, one good and represented by light and one evil and represented by darkness. During and after the fourth century B.C., Zoroastrians believed in resurrection The Greeks generally said the Magi were Zoroastrians. Clement of Alexandria believed the Magi who came to Bethlehem were Zoroastrians. The skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.788 mentions only these as the Magi.
By the time of Christ, the Greeks also called Chaldeans who practiced astrology as Magi too. Many astrologers traveled west to teach, including the Babylonian Berossus, who taught on the Greek island of Cos after 281 B.C. Tacitus says the magi practiced sorcery, and Pliny claims magic started with Zoroaster. The church father Origen, among his many criticisms of the heretic Celsus, said Celsus failed to distinguish between the Magi and the Chaldeans. The New International Dictionary of the Bible p.612 mentions these as the Magi.
Regardless of the precise Mideastern origin of the "Christmas Magi", the Magi practiced astrology. See the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.1067-1068, and especially the chapter on the Magi in Persia and the Bible p.467-491.
Q: In Mt 2:8,12, did God command the wise men to fail to keep their word to Herod, since they were told not to return to Herod?
A: Three points to consider in the answer.
1. Matthew 2 never says the Magi promised Herod they would return.
2. Matthew 2 never says the Magi told Herod they had an intention to return. Even if they did, after the dream, their intention changed.
3. Even if they did promise Herod, a promise should not necessarily be kept if:
3a) It was promised under deceitful conditions,
3b) You promise something that is directly contrary to God’s will
3c) Keeping your promise means an innocent person will die.
Q: In Mt 2:11, since astrology is wrong, why did the Magi follow the star?
A: First let's learn a bit about the Magi, and then see what this teaches us about God.
The Magi were a tribe of Persian priests, somewhat like the Israelite priests came from Levi. You can read more about the Magi throughout the excellent book, Persia and the Bible. They were known to practice astrology.
Astrology is against the Bible: The Magi most likely did not know that the Old Testament says astrology was wrong (Lev 19:26; 22:27; Dt 18:11-14; 2 Ki 17:16; 21:3,5; 2 Chr 33:3-6).
Here is what the early church writer Tertullian (200-240 A.D.) wrote about astrologers in On Idolatry chapter 9. "You know nothing, astrologer, if you know not that you should be a Christian. If you did know it, you ought to have known this also, that you should have nothing more to do with that profession of yours which, of itself, fore-chants the climacteries of others, and might instruct you of its own danger. There is no part nor lot for you in that system of yours. He cannot hope the kingdom of the heavens, whose finger or wand abuses the heaven."
God never said He was restricted to using only "good" means to draw people to Himself. Sometimes God uses truly wicked means, such as the Babylonian army (Habakkuk 1:6,13). God can use disease, evil people, and even unintentional sin (as with the Magi) to draw people to Himself.
Most strange of all, is that God has used deliberate, willful sin by believers to rescue those same believers. You can read all about this in the narrative of Joseph and his brothers, in Genesis 37 and 50, and especially Genesis 50:20. As a matter of fact, God can work all things together for good (Romans 8:28) and for His purposes (Ephesian 1:11)
In conclusion, since God using kidnapping of Joseph for his purposes does not justify kidnapping, God using astrology for his purposes does not justify astrology.
See the Complete Book of Bible Answers p.55 and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.353-354 for complementary answers.
Q: In Mt 2:15 and Hos 11:1, how is "out of Egypt I called my son" a prophecy of Christ?
A: Hosea 11:1 was first used of the Israelite people. Matthew is using not only Hosea 11:1, but many other Old Testament verses to show that the life of Christ paralleled that of the Israelite people (except without the sin.) Matthew is writing to Jews well-versed in the Old Testament, and Matthew apparently is using what Jewish scholars of that time would recognize as Midrashic techniques. Jewish Midrashic interpretation to ferret out the meaning and application behind each word.
Q: In Mt 2:16, apart from killing the babies in Bethlehem, was Herod ever cruel to anyone else?
A: Yes. Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.799 says it is hard to believe Herod's killing ever happened. However, as the allegedly more civilized 20th century has seen Pol Pot of Cambodia, Idi Amin of Uganda, Hitler, Stalin, and Mao Tze-Tung, it is not hard to believe Herod would do this.
In Herod’s 36 years of reign, he killed many. Herod executed or had assassinated his wife Mariamne, and two husbands of his sister Salome. Herod had his brother-in-law drowned in the Jordan, and his mother-in-law Alexandra killed. He killed Hyrcanus, the last of the Hasmonean Dynasty. He killed many Pharisees and many noble families. The Jewish scholars Jehuda ben Saripha and Mattathias ben Margoloth were burned alive. He had his sons Alexander and Aristobulus killed. Since Herod, like most Jews, did not eat pork, this prompted the Roman Emperor to quip that he would rather be Herod's pig than his son. Five days before Herod died, he had his son Antipater assassinated. (Three younger sons, Archelaus, Herod Antipas, and Philip, survived him).
After Herod died in 4 B.C., there was a revolt, and Archelaus sent troops to Jerusalem and killed 3,000 in one day. When Archelaus and Herod Antipas went to Rome, Sabinus, an agent of the Imperial Treasury came to audit the taxes. He took 400 talents out of the Temple Treasury. There was a revolt in 9 A.D., and Syrian troops under Qunitilius Varus put that down.
The Bible As History p.358 says there was an eclipse of the moon when he died, which would place the death on March 13, 4 B.C.
Q: In Mt 2:18, how is Jeremiah’s prophecy about Rachel fulfilled in Jesus?
A: In Genesis 35:16-19, Rachel died giving birth to Benjamin. At the time Jeremiah wrote these words about Rachel the wife of Jacob, she had already been dead for over 1,000 years. Jeremiah's words do not have two meanings but rather only one meaning with two fulfillments plus a third fulfillment back in Genesis. Jeremiah's meaning is that just as Rachel would be sorrowful over the death and enslavement of her offspring, be it by Egyptians or Babylonians, Rachel would be sorrowful over the death of her offspring by Herod's hand. In Jeremiah's time, the prophet repeated the word to prophesy the same feelings of grief over the loss of the Jews being exiled to Babylonia, near Rachel's tomb.
Matthew likewise uses the same words to show the loss over the death of the baby boys of Bethlehem, which was near Rachel's tomb.
If a skeptic has a problem with Matthew using Jeremiah's words, he might have an equal problem with Jeremiah using words from Genesis. The crux of the problem is this: just as Jews in Jeremiah's time understood the interpretation by saying the captivity would relate to Rachel's sorrow in Genesis, Jews in Jesus' day would understand this type of Midrashic interpretation Matthew used.
Q: In Mt 2:22, since sons of Herod reigned in both Judea and Galilee, why would Joseph decide to go to Galilee?
A: The skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.800 provides two helpful observations here.
1. Archelaus, who ruled as a king in Judea starting in 4 B.C., might have heard about this boy-king and been anxious to kill Jesus too. Herod Antipas, who was a tetarch of Galilee, might have had a different attitude.
2. Asimov points out that Archelaus was so antagonistic that Jews and Samaritans, enemies of each other, united in their appeal to Rome to remove Archelaus. When Herod died, Archelaus only ruled 10 years. On the other hand, Herod Antipas ruled peacefully in Galilee for over 40 years.
However, there is a far more obvious reason in Luke 2:39. Joseph was from Nazareth, not Bethlehem. Not only was Joseph going to the land of the milder ruler, Joseph was simply returning to where he was from.
Q: In Mt 2:23, archaeologically, is it true there is no evidence of a town of Nazareth, as an atheist claimed?
A: No. Atheist Frank Zindler claimed this in an article "Where Jesus Never Walked", according to The Case for Christ p.102 (p.137-138 in paperback). The Talmud mentioned 63 other Galilean towns (but not Nazareth), and Josephus mentioned 45 other towns in Galilee (but not Nazareth. It is mentioned at the beginning of the 4th century A.D., and in Jewish literature starting about the 7the century A.D.
However, The Case of Christ p.103 mentions that after Jerusalem in 70 A.D., archaeologist found an Aramaic list of priests who were relocated, and one of them was recorded as having moved to Nazareth. First century Tombs have been discovered just outside of Nazareth. Finally, pre-Christian remains have been found in 1955 under the Church of the Annunciation in Nazareth today.
Q: In Mt 2:23, according to archaeologists, just how big was Nazareth?
A: According to The Case for Christ p.103-104, Nazareth was a very insignificant town. It was about 60 acres, with a maximum population of about 480 at the time Jesus was born.
Q: In Mt 2:23 where is it prophesied that Jesus would be called a Nazarene?
A: First we will give the answer of the church father Tertullian (which is probably incorrect) and then the most likely answer.
Lamentation 4:7 (Septuagint) Tertullian in 207 A.D. answered this in his work, Against Marcion Book 4 chapter 7. While the Massoretic text of Lamentation 4:7 says "her princes were whiter than snow", the Septuagint says, "her Nazirites were whiter than snow". Tertullian mentions this as meaning both "Nazirites" (those who take a vow for God to abstain from alcohol, dead bodies, and other uncleanness), and "Nazarenes", those who come from Nazareth.
Tertullian said, "The Christ of the Creator had to be called a Nazarene according to prophecy; whence the Jews also designate us, on that very account, Nazarenes after Him. For we are they of whom it is written, ‘Her Nazirites were whiter than snow;’"
The Branch: The Messiah is referred to a "the branch" in Isaiah 11:1, Jeremiah 23:5, 33:5; and probably Zechariah 3:8; 6:12. The consonants in the word "branch" are identical to those in "Nazarene", and the Hebrew Old Testament was originally written without consonants. In addition, The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.23 mentions that "branch" carried the idea of an insignificant beginning, and the Pharisees reaction showed that Nazareth had the same connotation.
Q: Was Mt 2:23 false to claim Jesus being from Nazareth fulfilled the Old Testament (Isa 11:1, Zech 6:12 and other passages), as the skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.801-802 says?
A: Not at all. First here is what Asimov says, and then the answer.
The skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.801-802 mentions that, "Matthew may see a similarity here to ‘Nazarene’. (Actually the two words are identical in Hebrew, since the vowels were not written.) Asimov p.802 says "that Matthew "is indulging in, at best, a play on words, and is not referring to any actual prophecy of the Messiah being an inhabitant of Nazareth."
The answer is The Old Testament says the Messiah would be called the "branch" without specifying one or more reasons why. Matthew 2:22 does not restrict Jesus from also being God’s "branch" from which His church would grow.
Q: In Mt 3:4 and Mk 1:6, were the locusts John the Baptist ate clean or unclean food?
A: There were both clean and unclean locusts, and the Gospels do not specifically say. However, we can assume the John, being an obedient Jew, ate the clean variety. Clean animals included "hoppers" with wings with joint legs, including locust and grasshoppers, according to Leviticus 11:21-22 and Deuteronomy 14:21. Unclean animals included "flyers" according to Numbers 11:20,23 and Deuteronomy 14:19.
Q: In Mt 3:4 and Mk 1:6, did John the Baptist eat insects called locusts, or does this mean he ate from the locust tree?
A: Here is what ancient and modern sources say about the Greek word for locusts: akrides.
The Ebionites (an ancient heresy) tried to make John a vegetarian. Thus they said it was honey cakes, egkrides, instead of locusts.
Tatian made a summary of the 4 gospels and said "milk" instead of locusts.
Theophylact 173 lists a number of possibilities, including the plant melagron.
Various monks have called the Carob tree St. John’s bread tree, because they thought this was a "locust tree".
Theodore of Mopsuestia, perhaps in response to people saying this was something else, said these were locusts that had wings.
The trouble with these interpretations is there are apparently no Bible manuscripts that say these were anything but "locusts". Early Christians, such as Clement of Alexandria, wrote on Matthew 3:4, and they saw no reason to see the locusts as anything other than insects.
Modern references that say the locusts are insects include The NIV Study Bible p.1445, The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.104, the New Bible Dictionary p.744, .
The information on the alternative views came from Ulrich Luz’s book, Matthew 1-7 : A Commentary Augsburg Fortress 1989 for more info.
Q: In Mt 3:4, Mk 9:3, and Acts 22:20 (KJV), what is "raiment" and what is a "fuller"?
A: Raiment means clothing and a fuller is someone whose job is to wash clothes.
Q: In Mt 3:9, how could God raise up children of Abraham out of stones if He wanted?
A: God Almighty can do anything, even turn inanimate stones into children with copies of Abraham's genes.
Q: In Mt 3:10, what was the point of John the Baptist mentioning the axe is laid at the root of the tree?
A: Some things in life are irreversible, such as cutting down a tree. After you start, you cannot undo what has been started. Likewise, this was their last chance before being cut off.
Q: In Mt 3:11, how does Jesus baptize Christians with the Holy Ghost and with fire?
A: Believers are baptized with the Holy Spirit when they first believe in Christ. The apostles had a flame appear on their heads when they preached during Pentecost.
While the modern phrase "baptism by fire" means a difficult ordeal, that is not the meaning here, because it is Jesus, not persecutors doing the baptizing, and it is with fire, not by fire.
Q: In Mt 3:12 (KJV), what does "his fan is in his hand" mean?
A: This "fan" was actually a winnowing fork to separate the wheat from the chaff.
Q: In Mt 4:8, how could Satan offer Jesus the world, since Jesus was God and already owned the world, as an atheist (Cappello) asserts?
A: This is an interesting question. There are four points to consider in the answer.
1. Jesus was still God, but Jesus voluntarily emptied himself when He came to earth, as Philippians 2:7 and John 17:5 show.
2. God does indeed "own" the world as Psalm 24:1 shows. Nevertheless, when Jesus emptied himself of his glory and came to earth, his "own" did not receive him, as John 1:10-11 shows.
3. While God retained ultimate power, God granted mankind rule over this world, according to Genesis 1:28.
4. While God is the rightful owner, since the Fall Satan has temporarily been given a great deal of control over this world as 1 John 5:19 shows. According to 2 Corinthians 4:4, the god of this age is Satan. Satan is the prince of this world in John 12:31; 14:30,16:11; Ephesians 6:12; and Colossians 1:13.
Summary: God has the right of ownership because of both past Creation and eternal Sovereignty. Jesus temporarily gave up the second when He came to earth. But since the Fall, Satan has the rule, though not ultimate control, of this world.
Q: In Mt 4:12, when Jesus asked Peter and Andrew to drop their nets and follow Him, why did they leave so abruptly?
A: Jesus had been in Galilee awhile, and they probably had prior contact with Him.
Q: In Mt 4:13, how do you pronounce the town of Capernaum?
A: The Wycliffe Bible Dictionary and Cruden’s Concordance both pronounce it "ka-PUR-na-um, with the accent on the second syllable. All vowels are pronounced, and all are short except that the first u is pronounced as oo.
Q: In Mt 4:14-16, do Isa 9:1 and Isa 9:2 belong together, or was Matthew incorrect to put these together?
A: They belong together because Isaiah 9:1 is a transition with both sections.
The skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.816 says Isaiah 9:1 belongs with the earlier section and is actually called Isaiah 8:23 in modern Jewish Bibles and the New Jerusalem Bible. Admittedly Isaiah 8:22 and 9:1 do relate, because Isaiah 8:22 speaks of people in darkness and Isaiah 9:1 speaks of no more darkness.
However, Isaiah 8:22 speaks of people who will be driven away into darkness, Isaiah 9:1 says there will be no more darkness for Zebulun and Naphtali, and Isaiah 9:2-7 says how the people who were in darkness will see a great light.
It is interesting that Asimov is trying to say that those who were in gloom but will have it lifted in Isaiah 9:1 do not relate to those who were in darkness and have seen a great light in the very next verse. The Bible is great literature, but apparently having a section transition smoothly to another section is disconcerting for some skeptics.
Q: In Mt 4:15-16, how does the prophecy about Zebulun and Naphtali in Isa 9:1-2 relate to Jesus?
A: In two ways.
Childhood: Jesus’ spent most of his childhood was in Galilee, west of the Sea of Galilee.
Early ministry: Jesus’ early ministry was in Galilee, primarily west of the Sea of Galilee. This region was the ancestral land of Zebulun and Naphtali.
Q: In Mt 5:8, 1 Jn 3:2, and Rev 22:4, how will pure people see God, since Ex 33:23 and other verses say that no man can see God and live?
A: Since the Fall, no mortal, sinful man can see God and live. However, believers will be purified, and they will see God in Heaven. See When Critics Ask p.403-404.
Q: In Mt 5:13, how can Christians be salt?
A: Salt is added to food in small amounts to do one of four things. Christians likewise are salt of this world in four areas.
Life - Salt is essential for us to live. In the West African city of Timbuktu, where gold was plentiful, one pound of salt sold for one pound of gold. As Christians have the life of Christ inside of them, they are so display that life to this world. God uses our preaching, love, and service to bring others to Him to give them life.
Flavor - Salt adds flavor to food and makes it taste good. Likewise, we are the aroma of Christ to those who are saved. God also looks down and is pleased to see Christians in this world who are following Him.
Preservative - When there is no refrigeration, salt is also important to preserve food by keeping down the bacteria. Christians likewise are to be salt and light in this world by having a preserving effect by standing against sin.
Sacrifice - In Leviticus 2:13 the sacrifices were to be seasoned with salt. We too are to live our lives as a sacrifice for God.
See Now That’s a Good Question p.248-249 and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.430-431 for more info.
Q: In Mt 5:17 and Acts 10:10-16, since Jesus said he would not abolish anything in the law, why don’t Christians follow the Old Testament dietary laws like Muslims allegedly do?
A: While neither Christians nor Muslims follow the dietary laws, Christians do not because they listen to Jesus. Five points to consider in the answer.
At this time, Jesus' followers obeyed the Old Testament dietary laws. Jesus actually said that not one jot or tittle would pass away until all is accomplished.
The fact of Jesus' resurrection, fundamentally changed the way God dealt with His children. An angel informed Peter, Jesus' apostle, that God had made all food clean in Acts 10:9-16. Note it does not say these animals were always clean, but rather that God had made them clean.
Even Muslims who bring up this objection, themselves have to agree that some the Old Testament dietary laws are not to be followed. Muslims feel they can eat camel meat (and Mohammed did so), yet Leviticus 11:3-8; Deuteronomy 14:6-8 prohibit eating them.
Listen to Jesus in Matthew 15:10,17-20 and Mark 7:14-15. Jesus said it is what comes out of a man that makes him unclean, not what goes in. Mark 7:19 shows that by this Jesus declared all foods clean. If we call Jesus a prophet, we should listen to His words.
A voice from heaven commanded Peter to eat In Acts 10:10-16, showing him that the dietary laws were only in effect until Jesus’ sacrifice, not after. We should obey the voice of God's angel and Jesus' apostle.
In conclusion, we should not ignore what God's prophets said, but listen to them.
Q: In Mt 5:17, since Jesus said he would not abolish anything in the law, why are the Jewish festival days no longer followed?
A: Four points to consider in the answer.
1. The moral requirements of the Old Testament Law are for all people, and are unchanged.
2. The sacrifices can be said to be for all people today in one sense, because Jesus is our high priest and He performed all the sacrifice that is needed.
3. The festival days, which were for the Jewish people, and involved sacrifices, are not followed since Christ’s death by non-Jews.
4. If a Muslim brings up this objection, one might ask why Muslims do not follow both Christian and Old Testament Jewish holidays, if they think Christians are to follow Old Testament Jewish holidays.
See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.234-235 for more info.
Q: In Mt 5:21, why do people kill, animals, criminals, etc., since Jesus said not to kill?
A: The King James Version translated this "kill" when the Greek word phoneuo can mean murder. One who does this, a phoneus is a murderer or assassin, not an executioner or animal butcher. If someone really thought the Old Testament "though shalt not kill" referred to animals and execution of criminals, their misunderstanding of this word would make the entire Old Testament sacrificial system unfathomable mystery to them.
Q: In Mt 5:22, why did Jesus say for us not to call anyone a fool, since He and others did in Mt 23:17; Lk 24:25; 1 Cor 15:36; Gal 3:1?
A: Jesus did not say "foolish" or "fool", but actually he used an Aramaic slang term, which means "empty-head", similar to an American slang word "airhead". Jesus also calls people "foolish", "blind guides' (Matthew 23:16), and even "thieves and robbers" and "vipers". Jesus chose His words carefully, and did not denigrate people.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.358-359 for more info.
Q: In Mt 5:39-40, how are Christians supposed to turn the other cheek?
A: Christians are not to live naturally but supernaturally. We are to allow ourselves to be vulnerable (but not foolishly trusting evildoers), recognizing that we can trust God to watch over us and our family. See Now That’s a Good Question p.522-524 for more info.
Q: In Mt 5:39, why do Christians resist evil?
A: No verse in the Bible says Christians are not to resist any evil. Rather, Matthew 5:39 specifically says not to resist an evil person, who is doing evil to you. We are to resist the devil in James 4:7 and 1 Peter 5:9. Like Jeremiah in 7:6 and 22:16, we should speak up for the oppressed. In the Old Testament, Proverbs 28:4 says the righteous "contend" with the wicked who forsake the law. Leviticus 5:1 says it is a sin to refuse to testify in court about an evil we have seen. We are to guard against false teachers. (1 John 2:26; 3:7; 4:1; 2 John 7-8; Revelation 2:16; 2 Peter 2:2; Acts 20:28-29. We are to refute false teachers (1 Timothy 1:3; Titus 1:9-11; Jude 3). We are to contend for the faith. (Philippians 1:27; 4:3).
Q: In Mt 5:43, where does it say "love your neighbor and hate your enemy"?
A: This is not in the Old Testament, but the Jews had often heard it because it was a scribal tradition according to the New Geneva Study Bible p.1513.
Q: In Mt 6:1-4, are we to do good works in secret, or let our light shine before men as Mt 5:16 says?
A: Both. We should be diligent in doing good works. However, it should not be our own works, but rather Jesus, the one who lives in us, that others see when they see us. We are to be reflectors of Christ. Our light should shine, not us.
It is a privilege that God chose us to give glory by working through us. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.233-234 for more info.
Q: In Mt 6:1-4, in giving to God, how are Christians not to let their right hand know what their left hand is doing?
A: Just as we are not to make a big deal about our good works toward others, we are not to make a big deal about it before God. Do not break your arm by patting yourself on the back too hard either. Do not think of how you are doing God a favor. Do not mistakenly thing that you are enriching God, who owns everything anyway, or how fortunate God is to have saved you. We are saved not because of any merit of ours, but because God saw how helpless we were, and in His grace loved us anyway. See Now That’s a Good Question p.581-582 for a different but complementary answer.
Q: In Mt 6:1-4, since we are not to give alms before men, who do Christians report charity for tax purposes, and who do some have buildings or other monuments in their name?
A: Before men (plural) means before the public, so reporting charity for tax purposes, is OK. However, if someone donates money in order for a building or monument to be built in their name, then they have their reward, on earth. However, if someone builds a monument in someone else's name, and the first person is either unaware of that, or did nothing to encourage it being built in their name, then this verse does not apply to them.
Q: In Mt 6:5-6, since we are to pray in secret, why do many Christians want public prayer in schools?
A: The Bible gives many examples of private and personal prayer. However, it also gives examples of group prayers, such as Joshua 7:6-9. One can have corporate prayer where only one person is speaking, such as 1 Kings 8:22-53. In these examples of public prayer, everyone is involved in the praying, whether they are speaking or not.
In Acts 16:25-26, Paul and Silas were praying together and singing in a place where others could see. However, being in prison, they had no choice in their location.
What we do not see approved is publicly praying for show, or publicly praying where some of the crowd were not participating, perhaps because they do not believe in God.
Q: In Mt 6:7, should we ever repeat prayers?
A: It is OK to repeat prayers, as long as they have meaning for you when you pray them. If you are not praying them with meaning, then do not bother to pray them. Within a prayer or during worship, repetition of a phrase is OK, as was done in some Psalms. See Now That’s a Good Question p.207-210 and Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.411-412 for more info.
Q: In Mt 6:7-8, why do many Christians, especially those in more liturgical traditions (Catholics, Episcopal, Anglican, Lutheran, etc.) pray many of the same things over and over every Sunday?
A: This is OK if it has meaning to them every time. Jesus did not criticize repetition here, but vain (meaningless) repetition. In some Psalms, such as Psalm 136, repetition is used. Jesus warned us that repetition can be meaningless, but that does not mean all repetition is meaningless.
Q: In Mt 6:7-8, are we not to use vain repetition, or should we pray continually as the widow was an example of in Lk 18:5,7?
A: Praying continually does not necessarily mean you have to use repetition. You can say different things in your prayers when you pray.
Jesus did not say repetition was wrong, only if it is vain or meaningless repetition. Some repetition, if it is meaningful is OK. As an example, see Psalm 118:1-4. Thus if a church service uses some of the same things every week, that is OK as long as it is meaningful. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.236-237 for more info.
Q: In Mt 6:9-13 and Lk 11:1-4, what was Jesus teaching in the Lord’s prayer?
A: Here is a very brief synopsis:
Our Father: we pray to God the Father. Jesus is God (Hebrews 1:8-9), so prayers to Jesus are OK too, as Stephen did in Acts 7:59.
Who is in Heaven: While God is everywhere at once, never forget that God is transcendent. His throne is farther removed from us than the stars.
Holy be your name: Do not think God is just a buddy or "pal". Remember who God is.
Your kingdom come: This type of prayer is often neglected today. In addition to Praise/Adoration, Confession, Thanksgiving, and Supplication for yourself and others, there is praying for God’s Kingdom to come soon. 1 Thessalonians 4:18 is just one verse that shows we are to long for His kingdom. Verses that show we are to be watching and waiting for His Kingdom include 1 Thessalonians 4:18, 2 Peter 3:13 and 1 Peter 4:7.
This phrase does not indicate an uncaring attitude. Rather, with it we express a fervent desire to see God's kingdom come soon.
Your will be done: We are to pray for God’s will, not just to spend on our selfish desires (James 4:3)
On earth as it is in Heaven: We do not have to pray that God's will be done in Heaven, where there is no temptation, but there is a need for us to pray that the desired will of God Almighty be done on earth. Heaven is our standard for how much we want God’s will to be obeyed.
Give us this day: We are to pray to receive our needs, not just our desires. While ungodly rich people may get financially all they need and more without praying, we are to ignore that and pray to God for our needs. (See Proverbs 30:7-9.) Apparently there is no plan for praying for what we need for the wee on one day, so that we can neglect to pray at all on the next six days.
Our daily bread: Pray daily for our needs. Do not just pray one time for all the needs for your life, but pray daily. Absent from this prayer is a request for our wishes and selfish desires, as James 4:3 shows. This is a prayer for what we legitimately need.
Forgive us our sins: We need forgiveness for the words, actions, and inaction on the outside. In addition, we need forgiveness for our thoughts and cleansing for our sinful desires on the inside. Some falsely say that we should not pray for God to forgive us, once we have become Christians and have already been forgiven. This prayer shows otherwise. James 5:16 also shows praying for a believer so that his sins will be forgiven (future tense). Forgiveness of sins is on the basis of Christ's death on the cross, not any of our words, but forgiveness has a past, present, and future aspect which all go back to the cross.
As we forgive those who sin against us: God’s forgiveness for those who repent and turn to Him is complete. That is how our forgiveness to others should be.
Q: In Mt 6:9-13 and Lk 11:2-4, why should we pray?
A: Prayer is not informing an all-knowing God, empowering the Almighty, or changing the heart for a very loving God. Rather it is a commandment, a privilege to talk to God, and a promise that God will hear our prayers. Prayer is amazing, in that an All-Sovereign God has not only consented, but that He even originated the idea that He allows our prayers to "be effective" (James 5:16) in God changing things.
See Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.299-302 and the Complete Book of Bible Answers p.160 for complementary answers.
Q: In Mt 6:14-15, are we supposed to forgive others’ trespasses, or all their sins?
A: Trespasses here means sins, so there is no difference.
Q: In Mt 6:16-18, should Christians fast?
A: Yes, fasting is a way for believers to communicate the intensity or our feelings toward God.
We should fast for worship (Acts 13:2-3); to pray for help (Isaiah 58:3-9; Acts 14:23; Psalm 35:13; Nehemiah 1:4; Esther 4:3,16; 1 Kings 21:27, Ezra 8:23), and for individual and corporate repentance (Nehemiah 9:1; Daniel 9:3; Joel 1:14; 2:12-15; Jonah 3:5).
We should not fast for tradition (Zechariah 7:5) or show (Matthew 6:16-18).
Dieting to lose weight is fine to do, but that is not fasting since the primary purpose is different. Binge eating, alternating with fasting is not particularly healthy or scriptural.
See Now That’s a Good Question p.229-230, New Dictionary of Christian Ethics and Pastoral Theology p.377-378, and 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.463-464 for more info.
Q: In Mt 6:19-21, why do Christians have money and other treasures on earth?
A: . Giving to God is not optional for believers (Malachi 3:10-12). We should give to the Lord's work (2 Corinthians 8:1-8; 9:6-11; Proverbs 3:9,10; 11:24; 1 Corinthians 16:2; Titus 2:13). It is important for us to help the poor and others to help others (Proverbs 11:24-25; 14:21; 24:11-12; 28:22; 29:7; 31:9,20; 2 Corinthians 9:6-7.
A large number of verses in the Bible tell us to give to the poor and others: Proverbs 11:24-25; 14:21; 19:9-10,17; 21:13; 22:9; 24:11-12; 29:7; 31:9,20; Psalm 41:1; Isaiah 58:7-8,10; Jeremiah 5:28; 22:16; Matthew 6:2-4; 19:21; Galatians 2:10; Ephesians 4:28; 1 Timothy 6:18-19; James 1:27; Deuteronomy 15:11; Psalm 68:5; Job 29:12-13; 1 John 3:17-19; Acts 4:32-35
However, also recognize that riches can be a blessing from God, according to Proverbs 28:20. For Christians, it is proper to do the following
a) Have personal property (2 Timothy 4:13).
b) We are to provide for our family. (1 Timothy 5:4,8; Proverbs 31:13-15; Mark 7:10-13;~Luke 15:18-30)
c) Provide for our ministers (1 Corinthians 9:4-12; 1 Timothy 5:18; Galatians 6:6)
d) Provide for ourselves (Titus 3:14)
e) Pay your taxes (Matthew 22:17; Romans 13:7).
f) Store for the future (Proverbs 6:6-8; 10:5; 31:16; Luke 15:18-30; Titus 3:14)
g) Leave an inheritance for our children (Proverbs 13:22; 17:2; 19:14; Psalm 17:14)
h) We should take care of our possessions, (which sometimes takes additional money) (Proverbs 12:10,11,27). We should know the condition of our wealth, for it can be lost through neglect (Proverbs 27:23-24).
Yet it is not proper to do things for greed or fear. If you are insured so much, that you can provide better for your family dead than alive, your priorities are messed up. See the discussion on Proverbs 3:9 for a more extensive discussion on proper and improper attitudes and uses of money.
Q: In Mt 6:26, since God watching the birds is an example of God’s caring, what can we expect in the way of help from God?
A: Here are five points to consider in the answer.
1. Nothing happens except what God allows. (Job 1:12; 2:6)
2. We will have troubles (2 Timothy 3:12; James 1:2), but God will strengthen us and comfort us in our troubles. (2 Corinthians 1:4-5)
3. God does not allow believers to be tempted beyond what they can bear.
4. Some believers will suffer persecution, and some even death.
5. Precious in the sight of the Lord is the death of His saints. (Psalm 116:15) Even if we die an unjust painful death, God will still take care of us in Heaven.
Q: In Mt 7:1-2, Lk 6:37, Jn 7:24 how are we not to judge others, since we are told to judge in Jn 7:24, 1 Cor 5:12, and 1 Cor 6:25?
A: The Bible approves judging actions, but not sitting in judgment on people. 1 Corinthians 6:5 uses a different Greek word, diakrinai, than the others for judge. It refers to a Christian arbitrator pronouncing judgment on a civil matter between Christians.
The Greek word used in the other passages, krinete, has a range of meaning. Matthew 7:1-2, Luke 6:37 says we are not to judge others (no mention of not judging things or actions). In other words we are not to judge the value of other people, judge how good a Christian they are, or how bad a sinner they are. Let God do that; we do not need to judge.
John 7:24 also uses the word krinete saying, "Do not judge according to appearance, but judge with righteous judgment." (NASB).
It is irresponsible to quote Matthew 7:1 in order to teach abdicating all judgment. Concerning the murdering of others, the Holocaust, people having sex with animals and children, etc., some people might say we should not impose morality, or in essence not judge what is right and wrong. This is not what the Bible teaches.
See Now That’s a Good Question p.163-164 and Today’s Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.369-371, and the New Geneva Study Bible p.1515 for complementary answers.
Q: In Mt 7:1-5, should Christians not judge, or should they judge as 1 Cor 6:2-5 says?
A: We are not to judge other people, including their worth, but we are to discern good and bad actions as 1 Corinthians 6:2-5 teaches. While some of the words are the same in Greek (from krino), the context is different.
Q: In Mt 7:6, what did Jesus mean by not casting your pearls before swine (pigs)?
A: Do not take what is precious and give it to those who are not appreciative of it, and might use it to turn and attack you. This concept of not casting pearls is behind Proverbs 9:7-9, where we are not to try to correct a scoffer or wicked man. Jesus did not do many miracles before unbelieving people. Also, it is better for a person not to know the way of truth, than to know it and turn their back on it, as 2 Peter 2:20-22 says.
Let's look at the possible range of interpretation, in order to best determine which choice or choices are the intended meaning.
Casting could mean:
C1. Do not cast could mean do not force
C2. Do not nag
C3. Do not make any effort to teach
C4. Be very careful to never tell
Here the verb "cast" is active, so Jesus did not mean hide your pearls, or do not leave any pearls on the ground. Thus C4 is very unlikely.
Pearls could mean:
P1. Godly teaching
P2. The message of the gospel
P3. Anything of value, special privileges, or participation in sacred things Hard Sayings of the Bible p.370-371 has this view.
P4. It could also mean that when the church is being persecuted, do not expose other Christians by giving their names to just anyone.
Jesus taught moral teaching openly, so it probably does not mean P1.
Before swine could mean:
S1. Those who are not appreciative of these things. (Hard Sayings of the Bible p.370-371)
S2. Those not ready to learn (The NIV Study Bible)
S3. Unbelievers who do not actively desire to learn
S4. Unbelievers who refuse to learn
S5. Gentiles (the skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.833-835) However, Matthew mentions non-Jews who believed, so it does not refer to Gentiles in general. Even Asimov mentions this point.
Swine was a derogatory term, so it is very likely the intended meanings include those who refuse to learn.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.370-371 and Now That’s a Good Question p.585-586 for complementary answers.
Q: In Mt 7:7-11, why don’t people get all they want?
A: God is much more than merely a cosmic Santa Claus. People do not always get what they want least five reasons.
1. People do not ask for them (James 4:2)
2. Must pray to God, not another.
3. Must pray in the spirit and name of Jesus (Colossians 3:17; John 14:13-14; 15:16; 16:26)
4. God does not hear the wicked. Proverbs 15:29; 1 Peter 3:12; Isaiah 1:15; Jeremiah 11:14; 14:12; Micah 3:4.
5. They fight against God's people. Psalm 18:41. 1 Samuel 22:16-17; 28:6
See also the answer to the next question.
Q: In Mt 7:7-11, why don’t Christians always get what they pray to God for in the name of Jesus?
A: We cannot know every specific case, but in general there are at least 16 reasons dealing with us, circumstances, and God.
Us:
1. Not for spending on our passions. James 4:3
2. Requests must be for good things. Matthew 7:11
3. It is not God’s will to have them. Mark 14:36
4. We have to wait. Daniel 10:12-14
5. Our prayers are simply vain repetition. Matthew 6:7
6. Yet we have to [meaningfully] persist. Luke 11:5-10, 18:1-7
7. We cherish sin in our hearts. Psalms 66:18-19, or are wicked Proverbs 15:29. God does not hear us when we choose not to hear God. Zechariah 7:11-14
8. We need self-control. 1 Peter 4:7
9. We have sinned, such as divorce. Malachi 2:13-14
10. We ignore God and His law. Zechariah 7:13; Proverbs 28:9
11. We ignore the cry of the poor. Proverbs 21:13
12. We are inconsiderate of our wives. 1 Peter 3:7
Circumstances:
1. In his time, God might grant the prayer, but now might not be the right time.
2. It might be that we need to change in some way, or that someone else needs to change.
God:
1. God might be answering our prayer as "no"
2. God might be testing us.
Sometimes, as the book of Job and Daniel 1-:2-3,12-14 show, we have absolutely no idea of everything that is going on behind the scenes. We do know that our patience and persistence glorifies God.
Q: In Mt 8:2, why did the leper phrase his question this way?
A: The leper had no question about Jesus’ ability to make him clean. The leper was unsure of Jesus’ desire to make him clean.
Q: In Mt 8:4, why was the leper to make the sacrifice as a testimony to the priests?
A: This would serve as a testimony to show the priests he was miraculously cleansed, and it also would be a testimony to the priests that Jesus was still upholding the law.
Later, some of the Pharisees became Christians, according to Acts 15:5. For all of their many faults, many of the Pharisees still had the virtues of taking God’s word seriously, and believing what God said about resurrection and afterlife.
Q: In Mt 8:5-13 did the centurion come to Jesus himself, or did he send others as Lk 7:1-10 says?
A: There are two possible answers.
The centurion sent others ahead, and then came himself.
When the centurion "came", that does not necessarily mean he came in person. For example, when John 19:1 says that Pilate whipped Jesus, that does not mean Pilate did it with his own hands.
See Bible Difficulties & Seeming Contradictions p.174-175 for more info.
Q: In Mt 8:10 and Lk 7:9, why did Jesus marvel at the centurion?
A: Jesus marveled at the comparison He observed. The centurion was not Jewish, and had not been brought up in the Law all of his life, yet the centurion had more faith than many Jews. Having faith is not simply based on your environment and upbringing.
Q: In Mt 8:12, does this refer to temporary punishment or eternal punishment?
A: The verse itself does not say. However, "weeping and gnashing of teeth" elsewhere refers to not only agony, but honor, privilege, and joy that is permanently lost, so this most likely refers to eternal punishment. Outside of the Bible, Justin Martyr (wrote about 138-165 A.D.) was an early Christian writer who taught about eternal punishment in The Second Apology of Justin chapter 9.
Q: In Mt 8:13, what is the significance of Jesus’ phrasing here?
A: It is not recorded that Jesus said this to anyone else. The centurion had said great faith, that Jesus should say this and his daughter would be healed.
Q: In Mt 8:14, does Peter being married prove wrong the Catholic practice that priests cannot marry?
A: Speaking as a Protestant, this verse neither proves nor disproves this point. Peter was married before he became a disciple. In like manner, there have been married Episcopalian priests in the twentieth century who converted to Catholicism, and the Catholic church let them continue to be married Catholic priests and continue as before in their marriage.
Q: In Mt 8:21-22, why did Jesus tell the man to let the dead bury their own dead?
A: Jesus was saying there were plenty of spiritually dead people around to bury the dead, and do not be tied up in things of no eternal significance.
Q: In Mt 8:24-25, how could Jesus sleep through this great storm?
A: There are two possibilities.
Natural: Jesus was tired after His preaching and slept very soundly. Back then they had no microphones or sound systems, so a public speaker had to speak very loudly. Remember also that Jesus had no anxiety about reaching the other side. If Jesus could normally sleep in a small boat, then He is simply sleeping when there are higher waves and wind.
Supernatural: If the storm was so great that nobody could sleep through it, then perhaps the Father had Jesus be in a very deep sleep to test the disciple's faith in God keeping Jesus safe.
Q: In Mt 8:28, were there two demon-possessed men in the country of the Gergesenes, or just one according to Mk 5:1-4; Lk 8:26-33?
A: While there possibly could be two different events, it is more likely it was the same event, and there was a scribal error in Matthew. Papias, a disciple of John the apostle, wrote that Matthew originally wrote his Gospel in Hebrew.
Q: In Mt 8:29, what did the demons mean by "torment us before the time"?
A: The demons knew they would be sent to the abyss (Jude 6; Revelation 20:1-2) and later to the Lake of Fire (Revelation 20:14-15).
Q: In Mt 9:2-6, what would be considered wrong with Jesus forgiving sins?
A: People sinned against God, and they correctly reasoned Jesus would have to be God to forgive sins against God. Notice that Jesus did not say "God authorized or approved me to pronounce your sins forgiven". Rather, Jesus simply said, your sins are forgiven.
Q: In Mt 9:9 (KJV), what does "receipt of custom" mean?
A: It means collecting taxes.
Q: In Mt 9:12, what did Jesus mean that only the sick need a physician?
A: All are sick, but only those that realize they are sick seek out a doctor.
Q: In Mt 9:13, why did Jesus mention God desiring mercy and not sacrifice?
A: Jesus is referring to Hosea 6:6. Just as in Hosea's time, some religious people in Jesus' time cared less for others, and were more concerned with being with the "right kind" of people. Jesus was concerned for the lost tax collectors and sinners, and rebuked them for not recognizing that all are sinners before God, and they had no reason to feel themselves better than other sinners. The scribes and Pharisees showed their heart because they never accused Jesus of being a tax collector or sinner, but of associating with them.
Q: In Mt 9:14, why did the disciples not fast?
A: Jesus did not say his disciples would never fast, but rather they did not need to fast while Jesus was still with them in the flesh. For the proper purposes of fasting, see the discussion on Matthew 6:16-18.
Q: In Mt 9:16-17 and Mk 2:21-22, what is the point of the analogies of the clothes and the wineskins?
A: In the natural world, one cannot always gradually ease into something new. Sometimes you need to "break the mold", shift paradigms, or have a new beginning. Jesus was saying here to accept His teaching, the break was so radical , you have to be born again (John 3:5-7) and become a new creation (2 Corinthians 5:16-17). See also the discussion on Mk 2:21-22
Q: In Mt 9:20-22 and Mk 5:27-34, why did Jesus publicly call out the woman with the flow of blood?
A: Physical healing was not the reason Jesus came to earth. Jesus was more concerned about the woman's faith than just the physical malady.
Q: In Mt 9:20-22 and Mk 5:27-34 does the amount of faith we have determine whether our prayers are answered?
A: It is a factor. For prayers that are in God's will, we need to have faith when we pray. James 1:6-7 says that we must ask without doubting because a double-minded person will not get what he or she is asking for. However, if we believe, but still have some doubts, we can ask, while still honestly acknowledging our unbelief as the man did in Mark 9:24, and God will honor our prayer. It is also nice to know that the Holy Spirit intercedes for us in prayer in Romans 8:26.
Of course, even if we ask something with more faith than anyone has ever asked for anything before, and it is not God's desire to give it to us, then God will not, as James 4:3 shows. This is a piece of a large question: when does God answer prayer, and when does scripture say He does not. See the discussion on Matthew 7:7-11 for more Hard Sayings of the Bible p.419-421 for more info.
Q: In Mt 9:24, why did Jesus say she was only sleeping?
A: There are two possibilities.
a) Jesus wanted to emphasize that do Him death is no more than the physical body sleeping.
b) Perhaps her body was not dead yet, but in a coma.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.421-422 for more info.
Q: In Mt 9:28-31, why did these two blind men, who had the faith to believe in Jesus, not have the obedience to refrain from broadcasting this to others?
A: This is an interesting issue. These men had the faith to turn to Jesus , when there was no other alternative. Yet, though they turned to Jesus in faith for the big things, they did not obey Him on this small thing. Perhaps they thought that broadcasting this at this time would be helpful, and they knew more about what was helpful than Jesus did.
Q: In Mt 9:38, should we pray for more workers for the harvest today?
A: Yes, this is an often-neglected prayer.
Q: In Mt 10:1, could the disciples heal before this?
A: Regardless of if they did heal some diseases before this, here Jesus was giving them the power over every disease.
Q: In Mt 10:3 (KJV), who is "Lebbaeus"?
A: This is the same as Thaddeus.
Q: In Mt 10:4 and Mk 3:18, how could Simon the Cananaean be one of Jesus’ disciples, since Simon [allegedly] was not a Jew?
A: The KJV and NKJV say "Canaanite", with the NKJV having a footnote saying the majority text is "Cananaean". The NASB and NRSV say "Canaanean".
Whether Simon was not at all a Jew or partly Jewish is not the point. Jesus could call disciples from any nationality. As a side note, many from Tyre and Sidon came to see Jesus in Mark 3:8. Tyre was about 35 miles from the Sea of Galilee, and Sidon was 25 miles from Tyre.
However, the Greek word Kananaios could be a transliteration of the Aramaic qan'an which means zealot. Luke 6:15 calls him "Simon the Zealot". The Expositor's Bible Commentary volume 8 p.239 and Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.840 says the same.
Q: In Mt 10:4; Mk 3:19; Lk 6:16; Jn 6:71, what does "Iscariot" mean?
A: There are two views.
1. Iscariot could mean "man of the dagger".
2. It could mean man (ish) from Kerioth, which was a town in Judah. See various sources, including the Archaeological Encyclopedia of the Holy Land p.212 for more info.
Q: In Mt 10:5-6, why did Jesus explicitly command His disciples not to go into the Samaritan villages?
A: This was a matter of timing, as Jesus explicitly did command them to go into Samaria in Acts 1.
Jesus was sent first to Israel, and then to the rest of the world. The apostles first went to Judea, then Samaria, and then to the ends of the earth. When Paul went to a new town, he too followed the pattern of preaching first at the synagogue. In many things today, there might be time that God wants us to follow, too.
Q: In Mt 10:10, Mk 6:8, Lk 9:3, 22:35,36, and 1 Sam 17:40 (KJV), what is a "scrip"?
A: This King James Version expression means a bag or purse, usually containing money.
Q: In Mt 10:12 (KJV), what does "salute a house" mean?
A: This King James Version expression means to ask God’s blessing on the house, and those in it.
Q: In Mt 10:13, what does this mean of the disciples’ blessing setting on a house or else returning to them?
A: The "house" here refers to those residing in the house. They were not to worry about "accidentally" blessing someone who do not really welcome them. The blessing comes from God, not any magic of their words.
Q: In Mt 10:14 and Mk 6:11, why were the disciples to shake the dust off their feet at those that would not welcome them?
A: This was a testimony against them. That is, the inhospitable people might reconsider their ways after seeing this rebuke. Also, it would be a testimony to God against those who rejected His message.
Q: In Mt 10:14-15, 40-42, why did Jesus teach that receiving a righteous person was so important?
A: Receiving a righteous person entailed many things. It not only meant welcoming him, but giving the righteous person help, aid, and in the coming decades, shelter from pursuing authorities. Receiving a righteous person also implied accepting his teaching, and being willing to learn from him. It also would entail letting him have a platform to teach others.
Q: In Mt 10:15, why will it be more tolerable for Sodom and Gomorrah on Judgment Day than for those who do not welcome the disciples into their homes?
A: Scripture does not say, but God judges people based on what they were able to know. (Romans 4:15; 5:13). While the people of Sodom and Gomorrah were very wicked, they knew very little of God. People who are not as wicked but know a great deal about God, but still reject God's disciples, will have to face serious judgment.
Q: In Mt 10:16, how are they (and we) to be wise as serpents yet innocent as doves?
A: Very simply, we are to be aware of the schemes and potential traps that others could do, but we are never to do evil schemes ourselves.
Q: In Mt 10:19, how does the Holy Spirit give Christians the words to say when they are under persecution?
A: Whether a Christian is under persecution at a particular time or not, sometimes the Holy Spirit just pops into a person's mind the words to say. Secondarily, God can have you see or hear everyday things around you that relate to the message you are to give. For example, right before speaking to the Athenians, Paul saw many idols, plus an altar to an unknown god. Also, we are reminded of truth through our reading of the Bible. Even if a Christian knew every story and every teaching in the Bible perfectly, it would still be important to read the Bible to be reminded of truth.
Q: In Mt 10:19-20, when the Holy Spirit is giving Christians the words to say, does that mean that at that time, the words are inerrant (with no error), or infallible (without significant theological error)?
A: Unless the Holy Spirit were giving exact words, and it could be certain that the person heard the words without error, then it is possible we can speak with error.
Q: In Mt 10:21-22, 35-36, why would members of a Christian household rise up against a Christian?
A: It is evil that family members of a worshipper of God would rise up against him or her. I have been told of an Algerian boy who converted from Islam to Christianity. When he refused to recant, his own mother put rat poison in his food.
Q: In Mt 10:23, why did Jesus tell Christians to flee persecution, since God is protecting them?
A: God can protect us any way He wishes, and one way to protect us is telling us when to flee.
On one hand, there is no shame in fleeing, as many Christians did after Stephen was stoned in Acts 8:1-8. On the other hand, there are times when God does not want us to flee but to stand and suffer for Him. At different times, both Jesus and Paul deliberately went to Jerusalem, knowing what awaited them there.
Q: In Mt 10:25, Mk 3:22, and Lk 11:15-19, who is "Beelzebub"?
A: This is the name of a demon that was known to the Jews. "Beelzebub" came from Baal which means Lord and zebub which means "flies".
Q: In Mt 10:26, what does it mean that nothing is hidden that will not be revealed?
A: In the end everything will be revealed. Specifically, in the Last judgment, God will judge every action (Revelation 20:13), every idle word (Matthew 12:36-37), and even know all our thoughts (Psalm 139:2,4).
Q: In Mt 10:28, is it God or Satan who should be feared for destroying both body and soul in Hell?
A: This passage refers to God.
Q: In Mt 10:28, how are physical bodies destroyed in Hell?
A: The Greek word here is Gehenna, which refers to Hell, but also refers to a large trash heap just outside of Jerusalem. Regardless of where a wicked person's first body is destroyed, their resurrection body goes to the Lake of fire and is destroyed because they refuse to accept Jesus Christ as their Lord and Savior.
Q: In Mt 10:33, if a Christian in a moment of weakness denied Christ before men, would that Christian be denied by Jesus and go to Hell?
A: Peter did that, but Peter was forgiven. Denying Christ and repenting is not an unforgivable sin, because no sin is unforgivable, except blasphemy against the Holy Spirit (Matthew 12:31,32; Mark 3:28-30; Luke 12:10-11).
Q: In Mt 10:34, how did Jesus, the prince of peace, come not to bring peace but a sword?
A: Jesus did not wield a sword at anyone (at least not until His second coming), yet families divided, and many Christians have been killed because of the name of Jesus. See When Critics Ask p.340 and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.378-379 for similar answers.
Q: In Mt 10:37, why do we have to love God more than our own family?
A: In Mark 12:29-30 Jesus said loving God was the first commandment. God created us and loves us, more than anyone, and it is to God we should have our highest allegiance.
Q: In Mt 10:41, how do we receive a prophet or righteous person’s reward by welcoming a prophet or righteous person?
A: This is true in at least two ways.
1. When a person welcomes them and receive their message, a person can convert to Christianity and become a righteous person too.
2. When we receive a Christian in Jesus' name, that is a righteous act, and it is as if we are receiving Jesus, as Matthew 25:33-40 says.
Q: In Mt 11:3, why did John ask Jesus if He was the promised Messiah?
A: John the Baptist was in prison, and perhaps he had not heard of the miracles and ministry of Jesus. There are at least four complementary possibilities:
Doubt: Perhaps John was having a moment of doubt here. The church father Tertullian (220-240 A.D.) was the first to suggest this.
Confusion: Perhaps John saw the prophecies of the first coming being fulfilled and was wondering about the prophecies of the Second Coming.
Impatience: William Hendrickson says that "Perhaps John's difficulty was not his faith, but his patience. John made a very wise decision when, instead of keeping his difficulty regarding Jesus to himself, or talking it over with others but not with the right person, he took it to Jesus." (The Gospel of Matthew 1973 p.84)
Prodding Jesus: Similarly, perhaps John was prodding Jesus to show more power, or both.
Q: In Mt 11:3-6, why did Jesus just not say yes or no?
A: It is an easy thing to claim to be the Messiah. It is another thing to back up the claim by providing miraculous evidence. Jesus was reminding both John and Jesus’ listeners of the evidence Jesus provided.
Q: Do Mt 11:11 and Lk 7:28 teach that John the Baptist went to Hell, as Rev. Moon's Divine Principle p.161 teaches?
A: No. John 10:41-42 shows that John’s testimony led many to believe in Jesus. We should be cautious in condemning a martyr who died for God as failing and offending God. Jesus saying the one who is least in the kingdom heaven is greater than [John the Baptist] refers to the fact that Jesus had not opened the way to heaven, and John the Baptist was actually the last prophet under the old covenant. Also, if John the Baptist failed in his teaching, then why in Matthew 21:32 did Jesus say the people were to believe John the Baptist? See also the next question for more info.
Q: In Mt 11:11 and Lk 7:28, what does it mean that he who is least in the Kingdom of Heaven is greater than John the Baptist?
A: There are three viewpoints, and all three might be true.
Hebrew idiom: This expression is very similar to a rabbinic saying of Johanan ben Zakkai, one of the most respected scholars of the first century, being the "least of" Hillel's eighty disciples; this saying was not meant to diminish Johanan's status but to increase that of his contemporaries. See The IVP Bible Background Commentary New Testament 1993 p.76 for more info.
None until Jesus: Even John the Baptist was not in the Kingdom of Heaven yet. No one was, until Jesus opened the way through His death and resurrection.
Relative position in Heaven: Remember that John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Spirit from before birth. A speculation is that perhaps believers in Heaven, who had to be regenerated after they were born will have a higher position than one who did not have to go through this.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.459-460 for more info.
Q: In Mt 11:12-13, how did the Kingdom of Heaven suffer violence?
A: From the time of John the Baptist's imprisonment (and later execution) until now, there is and will be violence done against the Kingdom of Heaven. Jesus said this after John the Baptist, currently imprisoned by Herod, sent him a message.
See When Critics Ask p.340-341 and the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1243 for more info.
Q: In Mt 11:14, Mk 9:5,11, Lk 9:8,19 (KJV), who is Elias?
A: This is Elijah.
Q: In Mt 11:16-17 and Lk 7:32, how was that generation like children in the marketplace?
A: Children can have short memories and be very unreasonable at times. They can have difficulty seeing any perspective except their own. Jesus explains why he said this in Luke 7:33-35 On one hand, they criticized John the Baptist for not drinking wine or eating regular food, and then they turn around and criticize Jesus for drinking wine and eating regular food.
I saw a similar situation in Salt Lake City ministering to Mormons. Mormons would ask if I was ever a Mormon, and I would answer "no". Since I was not a Mormon, how could I understand what they were teaching. They would ask ex-Mormon Christians the same question, and they would answer "yes". How could they listen to someone who was apostate and left their church. Apparently, there is no getting through to some people.
Q: In Mt 11:23-24, why would Sodom be willing to repent here?
A: Jesus is using hyperbole here to say that if the people of Sodom had the knowledge of God the Jews had, they would have not been so wicked as to be destroyed. Even the Assyrians repented when Jonah came to them, but some of the people of Galilee would not repent even when God Himself came to them.
Q: In Mt 11:25-26, why did Jesus thank God for hiding truth from the so-called wise?
A: Wouldn't it be strange if the more intelligent, and those who could afford more education, were by their knowledge alone more pleasing to God or closer to Heaven? It is not that way. Rather, those who are willing to acknowledge to God their own helplessness are close to God, as the parable of the Pharisee and the tax collector shows.
Q: In Mt 11:25-26, should we ever thank God for hiding the truth?
A: No, we should simply thank God for the truth and how He revealed it. Jesus is saying that more intelligent people have no advantage over less intelligent people in finding the truth about God. The truth was hidden in such a way that people cannot find it by their own wisdom apart from God. Yet paradoxically, for those who want to know the truth, they will find it, even if they are just little children.
Q: In Mt 11:27, how are all things delivered to Jesus?
A: All things are delivered to Jesus in a number of ways. All will bow to Jesus, Jesus will judge people, and Jesus saved us.
However the main point Jesus is making here is not that Jesus saves us, but rather that there is no salvation except through Jesus saving us. A modern adult, baby, or a person who died in earlier times before Christ was known to them either goes to Heaven through Jesus, or they do not go at all.
Q: In Mt 11:27, how does no one know the Father, except the Son and those to whom the Son reveals the Father?
A: This is true in not just one but two ways.
Knowledge: If God had so willed, He could have hidden Himself, such that we would be unable to know much about Him at all. God choose to reveal Himself, partially through Abraham and through the prophets, but the fullest revelation of Himself came through Jesus Christ coming to earth.
Salvation: All who were saved, and everyone who will be saved, are saved through the Messiah, Jesus Christ. Even people who followed the True God before Jesus was born, and did not know the name Jesus, are saved through Jesus. Acts 4:12 says salvation is found no where else. Philippians 2:9-11 says that at the name of Jesus every knee shall bow, in heaven, on earth, and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.379-380 for a complementary answer.
Q: In Mt 11:27, why does Jesus say that no one knows the Father except the son, and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal Him, since Ps 145:18 says God is near to all who call unto Him?
A: The Nine Questions People Ask About Judaism p.86-87 brings this up. There are three points to consider in the answer.
All whom Jesus chooses: Jesus never said that He alone would know the Father. Rather, Jesus said that only He and those whom Jesus chooses will know the Father.
Time period: Jesus did not specify whether this was in the future at the last judgment, present, past, or all of the above. This statement is true in the future, because in the end all will stand before Christ who is our judge, as John 5:22-23 shows. Jesus words were also true in His time, as Jesus told the Jews in John 8:24 that if they rejected Him, they would indeed die in their sins. This might seem unfair to someone who thought going to Heaven was merely reading scripture and relying on words, rather than obedience. However, Jesus said in John 14:6 that He was the way, the truth, and the life, and that no one would come to the Father except through Him. However, in one sense Jesus’ words were also true before His time too. Not only was He with the Israelites in the Wilderness according to 1 Corinthians 10:4, but his crucifixion and resurrection, which brought life to all believers, living both before and after Christ, was planned from the foundation of the world in Acts 2:23.
Special Relationship: All the previous being, said, Jesus and the Holy Spirit do have a special relationship to the Father that no one else has.
Q: In Mt 11:28, how does Jesus give us rest?
A: We can apply this truth to our lives in at least five ways.
Freedom from fear: God will take care of us, and nothing will happen to use except what God allows. 1 Peter 1:6-9 and 1 Corinthians 2:9 show that the glories of Heaven will make the sufferings we endure on earth seem small.
Freedom from anxiousness and worry: In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus specifically emphasizes our value to God, and both the undesirability and uselessness of worrying. Philippians 4:6-7 says that we are not to be anxious about anything but take our requests before God.
Freedom from our work, goals, and ambitions: When we become Christians, our measure of success is redefined. Success is not only accomplishing what God wants you to accomplish, but being everything God wants you to be. It is nothing more. We no longer need to worry about being successful in the eyes of others, or living up to cultural ideals.
Freedom from worrying about the Judgment: On the Day of Judgment, Christians can stand unafraid. Christ will judge Christians on their rewards (or loss of rewards) but Christians can have assurance of salvation and escaping the Lake of Fire.
Freedom everlasting: our freedom starts right now on earth, in a limited way. But we will have the freedom as sons of the King in Heaven, forever.
Q: In Mt 11:29-30, what is the difference between a yoke and a burden?
A: A yoke pulls a cart, which carries a burden. A yoke is pulled with others. A yoke, and the burden it is used to pull, can be light or heavy, and Jesus says His yoke is light.
Q: In Mt 12:1, Mk 2:23, and Acts 7:12 (KJV), why does it refer to ears of corn"?
A: 400 years ago, corn meant grain, not just maize from North and South America.
Q: In Mt 12:1-8 and Mk 2:27, is what Jesus said here about the Sabbath a change in God’s Law, or was Jesus saying how they should have practiced it in the Old Testament times, too?
A: Jesus is not making any changes hear. Plucking heads of grain was already specifically allowed in the Law. While the Law said people could not work on the Sabbath, you could pluck grain to eat, as long as you were not harvesting by putting it in a bag.
Jesus was pointing out that you have to look at the whole Law, for the Law also made a special provision for the priests. Also, Jesus points out that during David's emergency, his staying alive and ahead of Saul took precedence over the showbread. How much more should the Messiah take precedence over Pharisaic traditions.
Q: In Mt 12:3-5 and Mk 2:25-27, why was it OK to take the showbread, and how does this relate to keeping the Sabbath?
A: The key principle here is a hierarchy of commands, and their ultimate obedience was supposed to be to God, not the Sabbath. Only the priests were supposed to eat the showbread, and David and his men were on a mission for God, they had an emergency situation (being on the run from Saul), and after discussing it with the priests they ate in 1 Samuel 21:3-6.
For the Pharisees, the Sabbath actually became their idol! It was not because the Sabbath was somehow bad, but rather they were more concerned about the Sabbath than they were about God.
Q: In Mt 12:5, how did the priests blamelessly profane every Sabbath?
A: The Law instructed the priests to do what was not lawful for others to do on the Sabbath. Jesus’ point was not that priests should stop doing what God commanded them to do. Rather, Jesus’ point was that if you look at God’s instructions while ignoring the context, you can have all sorts of problems. A legalist is one who looks at laws without looking at the context.
Tertullian (200-240 A.D.) in Against Marcion Book 4 chapter 12 points out that when God commanded the Israelites to march around Jericho for eight days straight, they were marching on the Sabbath. So, this too is an example of God's direct command overruling the Sabbath.
Q: In Mt 12:3-8 and Mk 2:25-28, what was the point of these illustrations?
A: Following God is not only rules, but also priorities. Following Jesus as your Lord is what obedience is about, not just rules, even God’s rules. Other passages show that more than rules and priorities are involved in following God, but Jesus was being elementary here. Jesus had the patience in giving a simple explanation to the hostile Pharisees, and praise God that He is patient with us, too.
Q: In Mt 12:8 and Mk 2:28, what does it mean that the Son of Man is also Lord of the Sabbath?
A: We were made for God, not for a law and not for the Sabbath. The command to rest on the Sabbath was given to help man, not to hinder him. God is Lord of His law.
Q: In Mt 12:10-14 and Mk 3:3-6, what would the Pharisees consider wrong with healing on the Sabbath?
A: The Pharisees would consider healing a creative act, and thus work.
Q: In Mt 12:10-14, why did Jesus answer the Pharisees this way?
A: Jesus was pointing out their inconsistency. Imagine the strange humor of the situation. Here were some men, teaching their own additions to God's word as God's word, telling God Himself He could not do something. Since the miracle came from God, they might as well tell God that He had to take back that miracle!
Q: In Mt 12:31,32, Mk 3:28-30, and Lk 12:10-11, what is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit?
A: The context indicates it is seeing the direct miraculous working of God, rejecting the Gospel, and saying these are of Satan.
It is not just asking the Holy Spirit to get out of their life. I know a Christian college student who asked God to get out of her life. After a couple of months, she felt so miserable, she repented and came back to Christ. If someone committed blasphemy against the Holy Spirit, they would not want to come back to Christ.
See Now That’s a Good Question p.69-70, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.414-417, and The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.93-94 for more info.
Q: In Mt 12:31,32, Mk 3:28-30, and Lk 12:11, why is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit much more serious than blasphemy against Jesus?
A: Jesus did not specifically say. However, if someone rejects Jesus, the spirit can work so that they change their mind and later accept Jesus. However, if someone permanently does not want the Holy Spirit within their life, and the Holy Spirit honors that desire, they will never come to Christ and go to Heaven.
Q: In Mt 12:38-39 and Mt 16:1-4, when the Pharisees asked for a sign, did Jesus say they would only have the sign of Jonah, or was there no sign as Mk 8:11-13 says?
A: Three points to consider in the answer.
1. Matthew 12:38-39 was the first demand for a sign, and Matthew 16:1-4 and Mark 8:11-13 was the second demand for a sign.
2. In all cases, Jesus either said they would see no sign from Heaven, or that they would only see the sign that Jonah's hearers saw.
3. Jonah's hearers never saw any miraculous sign, only the prophet Jonah. Jonah never performed any miracle that was recorded in the Bible.
See the Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.362-363 for more info.
Q: In Mt 13, what is unusual about these parables?
A: According to The Expositor's Bible Commentary vol.8 p.10, David Wenham was the first modern scholar to recognize that Matthew 13:3-52 is a chiasm. However, it is not a perfect chiasm though.
13:1-2 Jesus came
-13:3-9 Parable of the sower, addressed to the crowds
-- 13:10-12 The disciples ask and Jesus answers
--- 13:10-17 The purpose of parables (for outsiders)
----13:18-23 Interpretation of the parable of the sower
-----13:24-33 Three more parables addressed to the crowds "The kingdom of Heaven is like…" (tares, mustard seed, yeast)
digression
--- 13:34-35 The purpose of parables (for disciples)
---- 13:36-43 Interpretation of the parable of the wheat and the tares
end of digression
-----13:44-48 Three more parables addressed to the disciples "The kingdom of Heaven is like…" (treasure, pearl, net)
---- 13:49-50 Explanation
-- 13:51 Jesus' asks and the disciples answer
- 13:52 Parable of new treasure and old
13:53 Jesus left
Within this structure, Matthew 13:13-17 is also a chiasm.
Q: In Mt 13:1, why did Jesus sit on a ship and speak to the people?
A: Jesus probably spoke from a ship because, on a calm day, the sound of His voice would carry well over the water.
Q: In Mt 13:11-13, why did Jesus explain this parable to His disciples and not to the crowd?
A: The answer is found in Matthew 13:14-15. Jesus had many disciples (including the 70) and not just the twelve. The crowds at this time were given a taste of Jesus' teaching, in such a way that they might be thirsty to find out more. Jesus was exclusive here; He only gave the explanation to His disciples. Of course, people in the crowds could choose to become Jesus' disciples too.
Q: In Mt 13:15, is this rather hard-hearted of God, to not soften their hearts and open their eyes?
A: Not at all. God is saying that if they were to turn to God, the Lord would certainly heal them. However, they bear the responsibility for their heart being dull, leading to the result that they will not turn to God.
God opens the eyes of the blind, but He does not usually open the eyes of those who are shutting their eyes tight. God softens people's hearts, but He is under no obligation to soften the heart of anyone who has already decided to harden their heart.
Q: In Mt 13:30, what is the significance of the tares gathered before the wheat?
A: The "tares" are most likely a weed called darnel, that looks like wheat when it is young. In agriculture it makes sense to weed a field before harvesting it. The Judgment weeds out the ungodly from Heaven. It is not that we are taken out of the universe where the tares naturally belong. Rather, the tares are taken out of God's universe, where God's children supernaturally belong.
Q: In Mt 13:32 and Mk 4:30-34, how is the mustard seed the least of all seeds?
A: First of all, there were two types of mustard seeds in Palestine: black mustard which people planted, and wild mustard. Jesus meant black mustard, because he is only speaking of seeds that are planted.
The mustard seed is insignificant in size, and the smallest seed of all the crop seeds in the land of Palestine. Jesus was communicating to the people mentioning crop seeds in their land.
However, for people who like details, the Greek word for least in both Matthew 13:32 and Mark 4:30-34 is, microteron, which can mean small in size or figuratively dignity. The word for seed in both passages, spermaton, can mean that which is sown. Regardless of whether Jesus was speaking Aramaic or Greek, He was still referring to seeds that were sown.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.381-382 for more info.
Q: In Mt 13:33, what is the significance of yeast here?
A: Jesus said that yeast in this parable represent the kingdom of Heaven, while in other parables yeast is bad. The important interpretative principle to learn here is that you cannot necessarily take the meaning of a symbol in one parable, and apply the same meaning to that symbol in all other parables.
Q: In Mt 13:33, in this parable, why did the woman in this parable hide the leaven in three measures of meal?
A: Three loaves of wheat meal is a full meal for a family. It only take a very small bit of leaven to change the nature of all the meal.
Q: In Mt 13:38, is everyone a child of the Kingdom?
A: No. As this verse shows, prior to coming to Christ we are not. Ephesians 2:3 says that we (including Paul), were children of wrath prior to coming to Christ.
Q: In Mt 13:52, why did Jesus mention new treasures as well as old?
A: This was a gracious way of saying they should still value the previous truth they learned as well as the new things Jesus said.
Q: In Mt 13:55-56, why was a prophet not honored in his hometown?
A: Jesus was not giving a command or a prophecy, but making an observation here. Prophets were not highly esteemed among the people they grew up with. For one who grew up in the same place, and had many of he same experiences, it can be hard to believe that God can use common people in an uncommon way. Unfortunately, there is some truth to the saying that "familiarity can breed contempt."
Q: In Mt 13:58, how did the people’s lack of faith restrict Jesus’ mighty works?
A: This verse does not say that God Almighty was incapable of doing a miracle here. Rather, Jesus chose not to do any miracles here because of their lack of faith.
Q: In Mt 14:3-4, why exactly did John the Baptist denounce Herod Antipas?
A: First the genealogical background and then the answer.
Background:
Herod Antipas: son of Herod the Great and Malthace
Philip: son of Herod the Great and Mariamne II.
(don’t be confused by another son of Herod the Great, named Philip the Tetrarch)
Aristobulus: son of Herod the Great and Mariamne I.
Herodias: daughter of Aristobulus
The answer: Herod Antipas was the half-uncle of Herodias, but that was OK according to Leviticus 18:1-17 and 20:12,14. Divorcing a wife was OK in Old Testament times. The problem was that Leviticus 18:16 specifically forbids marrying your brother’s wife, and Herodias was the wife of Philip, the brother of Herod Antipas.
The Expositor’s Bible Commentary volume 8 p.338, The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.53 and the skeptical Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.814-815 all say the same.
Q: In Mt 14:6-12, why is this gruesome account in the Bible?
A: Sometimes people can have an artificially rosy view of life on earth. Life sometimes is gruesome when evil people are in control. We can learn here that even believers such as John the Baptist can suffer unjust consequences in this life.
Q: In Mt 14:13 (KJV), how did Jesus go into the desert by ship?
A: While there were some dry places by the Sea of Galilee, that is not the point here. What the KJV calls "the desert" is more accurately a "deserted place" and the NIV translates as "a solitary place".
Q: In Mt 14:15, since this was a desert, why was there grass in verse 19?
A: This was not dry desert, but a deserted place. Also, Palestine has two seasons: wet and dry, and this was likely during the wet season. The wet season did not have monsoons like Southeast Asia has, but the Jordan River was too large to cross at that time and there would be a lot of green grass in places that would look to us like desert during the dry season.
Q: In Mt 14:24-32, how should Christians brave storms?
A: This passage is instructive on how to brave storms and how NOT to brave storms.
1. Do not be terrified when God does an unexpected work (14:25-26)
2. When Jesus tells us to take courage, we need to take courage and work bravely (14:27-28)
3. We need to obey Jesus, knowing that He is not only greater than the dangers around us, He is greater than our fears, doubts, and weaknesses. (14:29)
4. Look to Jesus, not the wind or other possible dangers (14:30)
5. When we have made a mistake or we do doubt, we should cry to Jesus to save us (14:30-32)
6. After we are safe, do not forget to worship God (14:33)
Q: In Mt 14:25, when was the fourth watch in the night?
A: The night was divided into 4 watches, and the fourth watch would be approximately from 3 am to 6 am.
Q: In Mt 15:1-3, was Jesus against washing hands?
A: No. While Jesus was not against hygiene, Jesus was against elevating washing hands to a religious ceremony. Today, other healthful things, such as good diet, herbs, and exercise are fine, but they too can become idols if people worship their health instead of God.
Q: In Mt 15:3-6, where did the idea of Korban originate?
A: The word itself, and the concept of devoting something to God, are found in Leviticus 1:2-3, 2:1, 3:1, Numbers 7:12-17. However, the Pharisees allowed someone to abdicate responsibility to take care of their parents by dedicating the help they would give to their parents to God.
The Pharisees here had mixed-up priorities. Allowing someone to dedicate things to God was given a higher priority than doing what God desired, which includes taking care of your parents. This can happen when people are more concerned with obeying a tradition than with obeying God.
See the New International Bible Dictionary p.232 and the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.379 for more info.
Q: In Mt 15:8, why do people choose to draw near to God with their lips, when their hearts are far from Him?
A: People come to religion, and nominally to God, for all kinds of reasons, and not all of them are the best. Some come for the praise of others, some are in it for the money, and some to find a husband or wife.
Some want a career where they can help others, and that is their main purpose, not because they have a love for God. When that is the case, there are many fine charities, such as the Red Cross, Goodwill, or UNICEF. They should join those, and not misrepresent themselves as loving God by wanting to work through a Christian church.
As a side note, the Bible says that Christians are to help the poor, disadvantaged, orphans, etc. This does not mean we should give money only to Christian organizations. It is good to support benevolent community organizations not associated with a religion also.
Q: In Mt 15:9, when are traditions of men good, and when are they bad?
A: Traditions transmit former beliefs and opinions to doctrines and laws of succeeding generations. There are four points to consider in the answer.
Evil: If the past tradition was wrong or bad, then error and perhaps sins are being learned and copied. The Bible speaks of sinful traditions such as the Queen of Heaven in Jeremiah 44:17-19.
Hollow: Tradition more commonly is simply worthless (Colossians 2:16-19). Taken seriously, these traditions can dilute devotion to God. The Bible speaks of hollow and deceptive traditions in Colossians 2:8 and 1 Timothy 1:4.
Corban: Even if the past opinion or practice was not anti-Scriptural, people have a way of equating human tradition with Scripture, and what was once human opinion now becomes "God says" and human practice, perhaps very appropriate for a particular time and circumstances, becomes allegedly "God's Law" for all times and circumstances. Tradition even overrides God's word for some people, such as those who practiced "Corban" in Mark 7:10-13.
Law of God: We should follow what God has commanded, such as water baptism and the Lord's Supper. However, we should not follow it because it is Christian tradition, but because God want us. We are not just to follow rules (Mark 7:6-7), but we serve in the new way of the spirit, not the old way of the written code (Romans 7:6; 2:29; Colossians 2:14).
Q: In Mt 15:10-20 and Mk 7:15-23, why did Jesus invalidate the Old Testament dietary commands here?
A: Jesus did not invalidate the Old Testament dietary commands, He superseded them. There are four points to consider here.
1. While Jesus and His disciples sometimes broke the man-made traditions of the Pharisees, they themselves lived in obedience to the Old Testament Law.
2. Even under the Old Testament, God was concerned with their obedience, and their diet was just one way, but not the only way, for them to demonstrate their obedience.
3. After Jesus' resurrection launched a new period, the disciples did not choose to eat all kinds of meat. An angel of God came down and instructed a reluctant Peter to eat in Acts 10:11-16. Who was Peter to argue with an angel from Heaven?
4. Muslims should not have any problem with this answer, as Mohammed allegedly did the same thing. He spoke of abrogated laws, (though abrogation is a little different concept from the New Covenant through Jesus). Also, he showed that Muslims could eat camel meat, and the Old Testament views camel meat just like pig meat. (Leviticus 11:4,7,26; Deuteronomy 14:7,8)
Q: In Mt 15:11,17-18, how is it only what comes out that defiles?
A: The context here is given in Matthew 15:20, where the Pharisees were concerned with eating with unwashed hands and Jesus was concerned with being pure on the inside.
If you were cooking something in a vessel, and liquid was slowly being added and slowly being drawn out, would you sample the inlet or the outlet to see whether the inside was the right temperature and on spec? Of course, you should sample the outlet. Likewise, Jesus was saying do not be too hung up on diet, because it is what comes out of you that can be defiling.
Q: In Mt 15:12, why was Jesus not concerned about making the Pharisees feel bad?
A: In some cases Jesus was concerned; He wanted them to feel bad. In Matthew 23 in particular, Jesus strongly rebuked them for two distinct reasons. Since they heard the rebuke, perhaps some would stop, think about Jesus' words, and repent. Second, regardless of the repentance of the Pharisees, the crowds would hear and know not to trust the Pharisees who rejected Jesus.
Q: In Mt 15:14, why does God sometimes allow the blind to be led by the blind?
A: As one person said, there is none so blind as those who refuse to see. God allows people to go where they want to go. A better question is, why do the blind allow, or even prefer, themselves to be led by the blind?
Q: In Mt 15:21-29 and Mk 7:24, why did Jesus go to Tyre and Sidon?
A: This does seem way out of Jesus’ way. Subsequent verses show that He had a demon to cast out (Mark 7:29), and that many people from the Phoenician coast listened to Jesus. Tyre was about 35 miles from the Sea of Galilee, and Sidon was 25 miles from Tyre.
Q: In Mt 15:21-29 and Mk 7:27-29, what exactly were Jesus and the Syro-Phoenician woman saying?
A: Four points to consider in the answer.
1. After Jesus traveled to the Phoenician coast, the woman asked Jesus one thing, to get the demon out of her daughter. Note there was no evidence this ethnic Syro-Phoenician woman, who was called a Greek, had converted to Judaism or even believed in the true God.
2. After Jesus walked all this way, miles outside of Israel, Jesus bluntly informed her that God’s message came through the Jews, who should be healed first (Mark 7:27). In other words, Jesus was not going to grant her request without her committing to believe God’s message, as delivered to the Jews.
3. She humbly consented to come to Jesus on his terms, not any other terms. We too need to have faith in God's grace.
4. While both Gentiles and dogs were not regarded very highly by Jews, Jesus did not use the usual term for dog here. This word is better translated as "doggie" or "puppy". Romans and Greeks did regard dogs highly. Jesus used a "double entendre" of low regard by the Jews, combined with high regard and affection by the Gentiles in comparing her to an affectionate pet. However, Jesus still made it clear that His message was to the Jews first. See Today's Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.240-241 and The NIV Study Bible p.1465 for more on this point. If God has greatly blessed someone else, and not us, we should still be happy for what God has blessed us.
In summary, Jesus’ long walk, combined with Jesus’ curt words, beautifully illustrate the paradox that Jesus will travel great distances to reach us, but we have to come to Him without pride on His terms, not ours.
Q: In Mt 15:31 (KJV), what are "dumb" people?
A: These are mute people, who are unable to speak.
Q: In Mt 16:1,4, why was it wrong to ask Jesus for a sign from Heaven?
A: It must have seemed strange to the disciples for the Pharisees and Sadducees to ask for a sign just after Jesus had performed all these miracles, many of them in the presence of Pharisees and Sadducees. Jesus' miracles had already helped the lame, blind, and demon-possessed, and the Pharisees asked for a sign from Heaven, that would not help anyone. Jesus refused to perform on demand for them.
Q: In Mt 16:2-4, what does the cycle of evening and morning have to do with the signs of the times?
A: The predictable cycle of day and night is a very simple truth even children can observe. Jesus is saying there are other cycles too, such as the sings of His coming, followed by His coming. Jesus will com a second time, and many of the signs just prior to the first coming will also be present before the second coming.
Q: In Mt 16:4, what exactly was the sign of the prophet Jonah?
A: The point was there was no miraculous sign except the testimony of this godly man.
Q: In Mt 16:7-11 and Mk 6:52, what was the significance of the five loaves and 5,000, and the 7 loaves and the 4,000?
A: Four points to consider in the answer.
Jesus is the Bread of Life. Since He could feed so many, they do not have to worry about if they took any loaves or not.
In general, Jesus has taken care of them, and they should have no fear that God will be unable or unwilling to take care of them in the future.
Reteaching the same lesson, since Mark says the disciples did not understand the point of the feeding the first time. The Life & Times Historical Reference Bible p.1343-1344 has this view.
Two messages might be intended here: one that God feeds the Jews, and also that God feeds the Gentiles.
Q: In Mt 16:7-11 and Mk 8:19-20, what is Jesus saying is the significance of these numbers?
A: Some might see mystical significance in the five loaves, 5,000, and the five books of the law for Jews at the first feeding, and 7 loaves (a perfect number) and 4,000 (4 representing the four corners of the earth perhaps) for the second feeding of primarily Gentiles.
However, there is a much simpler explanation. With Jesus, a very small number of loaves of bread can feed a very large number of people.
Q: In Mt 16:8, why did Jesus say they had little faith here?
A: They were not anxious about their food because of their limits of knowledge, given all that they saw. Rather, they were focused on their short-term problems, and lost sight of what God can do.
Sometimes today Christians can be anxious, not because they have not learned enough, but they are so concentrated on their problems that they lose their focus on God.
Q: In Mt 16:11-12, how is the teaching of the Pharisees and Sadducees like yeast in bread?
A: It can be a very small additive, yet have a large effect through the whole loaf. Likewise some teaching can be a small additive, but have a large negative effect.
Q: Does Mt 16:11-12 indicate a late authorship, as the writer could not distinguish between the Pharisees and Sadducees?
A: Contrary to some liberal critics, it does no such thing. Saying to beware of the teaching of two groups does not mean the writer was unable to distinguish between the two groups. Politically, we should beware the teachings of the far left and the far right.
Q: In Mt 16:13-14 and Mk 8:27-29, why did Jesus want to know who others said He was?
A: This is called the Socratic method of teaching, by asking questions. It is often useful to ask a question that you already know the answer. It can tell you what the responder thinks, and even aid the responder in organizing his thoughts.
Q: In Mt 16:16-17, how did Peter only know this by the Holy Spirit?
A: Apparently Peter did not hear Jesus explicitly claim this yet. Peter did not say, "I think…" or "I hope…" but Peter knew for certain. Furthermore it would be one thing for someone to tell Peter this claim, and another for Peter to believer this for himself.
Q: In Mt 16:18, what or who is the rock here?
A: There are two main views, and both could be true.
The rock is Peter's confession of Christ. There were not one but two different Greek words for rock here. Simon was called Peter "rock" because he first gave the confession that Jesus is the Christ. Jesus and the disciples, being from Galilee, most likely spoke Greek. Regardless of a Christian's interpretation of this particular verse, 1 John 4:1-3 and 2 John 7-10 show that any who do not recognize that Jesus has come in the flesh should not be accepted or welcomed. 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 shows that any who do not believe that Jesus died for our sins and physically rose from the dead believe in vain. 1 Corinthians 12:3 teaches that no one says that Jesus is Lord except by the Holy Spirit. Practically speaking, the church is built on the confession of Jesus Christ.
The rock is Peter himself. Jesus and the disciples undoubtedly knew Aramaic, and so Jesus might have spoken Greek here. The two words are different because one is feminine, and the other a masculine personal name. Also, Papias, a disciple of the apostle John, says that Matthew was first written in Hebrew [perhaps meaning Aramaic] and later translated into Greek. In Aramaic the identical word kepha would be used. Catholics generally have the view that the rock here is Peter, as they believe it supports the church being founded on Peter. Then, they add that Peter transferred being Pope to successors. While there is no hint of this last part in the Bible, there is not a problem for Protestants also to interpret Peter as the rock here. Regardless of a Christian's interpretation of this verse, good foundations are made of rock, and all of the apostles and prophets are the foundation of the church in Ephesians 2:20. Practically speaking, the church is built on the Bible, which is the teaching of the apostles and prophets.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.383-386 for a complementary answer.
Q: In Mt 16:18, was Jesus essentially saying that Peter was the first Pope, as the Catholic church claims?
A: This was first used to support papal succession by Pope Damasus in 382 A.D. As Dave Hunt writes in A Woman Rides the Beast p.101 "One of the earliest examples of multiple popes was created by the simultaneous election by rival factions of Popes Ursinus and Damasus. The former’s followers managed, after much violence, to install him as pope. Later, after a bloody three-day battle, Damasus, with the backing of the emperor, emerged the victor and continued as vicar of Christ for 18 years (366-384). So "apostolic succession" by an "unbroken line from Peter" operated by armed force? Really?"
From the same book, p.135-136, Bishop Joseph Hefele of Rottenberg says, "‘But in all those documents [history and teachings of the church] I have never seen the doctrine [of papal infallibility from a credible source].’… Von Dollinger, one of that day’s great authorities on church history, agreed entirely with Hefele. His book (banned by Rome) warned of Pius IX’s coming attempt to push through the dogma of infallibility and reminded the bishops who would gather to deliberate this vital decision: None of the ancient confessions of faith, no catechism, none of the patristic writings composed for the instruction of the people, contain a syllable about the Pope, still less any hint that all certainty of faith and doctrine depends on him.’"
Q: In Mt 16:18, how was "the rock" the most significant pun in all of history?
A: The skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.856 states, "It was the most influential pun in all history." In one sense Asimov's observation is correct, as these words were used for centuries to support the popes.
However, while it should be agreed by all that Jesus intended for Peter and the other apostles to have the highest authority on earth over the church, Jesus never said anything about alleged successors. Thus it was not the words themselves, but the unwarranted extension of them to the Popes that made them the most influential pun in all of history.
Q: In Mt 16:19, what is this binding and loosing?
A: Imagine Christians today trying to discern cultists from mistaken Christians, and strange teaching from godly teaching, if they had no New Testament. That was the situation in the early church. God gave the apostles the ability to discern and the authority to pronounce what was good teaching.
The NIV Study Bible p.1466 says it was not to determine guilt or innocence, but to announce it, as Peter announced Ananias and Sapphira guilty of lying to the Holy Spirit in Acts 5:1-10.
Hard Sayings of the Bible p.385-386 says that the terms "binding" and "loosing" were familiar expressions from rabbinical Judaism. These terms meant ruling authorizing or forbidding various types of activities.
Q: In Mt 16:19, what exactly were the keys of the kingdom of Heaven?
A: There is no metal, or physical object involved here. It could either be the message of the gospel, of Peter unlocking the door of the gospel for the Jews (Acts 2) and later for the Gentiles in Acts 10, as The NIV Study Bible p.1466 says.
Jesus also said the scribes had Pharisees shut the kingdom of Heaven in men's faces in Matthew 23:13. In Luke 11:52, the experts in the law took away the key to knowledge.
Q: In Mt 16:19, could these keys of the Kingdom of Heaven be passed on?
A: Scripture never even hints that any "keys" could be passed on, except that Jesus gave these to all the apostles. However, Jesus telling the apostles, metaphorically that they have the "keys" does not mean Jesus gave up having the keys himself, for Jesus still has "the keys to death and Hades" in Revelation 1:18.
Hypothetically speaking, even if an early Pope having these keys and being able to pass them on would not mean papal succession, if the succession was broken. a Pope taking the keys by the previous Pope being deposed sounds ridiculous. If a Pope was totally immoral, such as Alexander VI (1492-1503 A.D.) that would also break Papal succession. If a Of course from that point on, one cannot pass on what one never had.
How bad were some Popes? According to Austin's Topical History of Christianity, p.148,
"Then [after 904] began the so-called "pornocracy," during which Theodora and her two daughters, Theodora the Younger and Marozia, virtually controlled Rome and the church itself. Enticing harlots, these women had sold their bodies for positions, titles, and land, giving them widespread power. Marozia had an illicit affair with Pope Serius III, from which was born a son who later became Pope John XI. When Marozia sought to have herself crowned empress, her younger son Alberic kidnapped and imprisoned his mother, incarcerated his half brother, the pope, and became emperor himself. He reigned from 932 to 954, exercising absolute control over the papacy. After Alberic's death, his son Octavian was elected as Pope John XII, and proved to be the most odious member of this depraved family.
b. The Otto Regimes. In 962, the wicked John XII crowned the German king Otto I as emperor of the Holy Roman Empire. Thinking he had an ally in depravity, John soon found the new emperor to be a man of character and devoted to restoring the papacy to decency and honor. When Otto assembled a synod to discuss deposing John, the pope threatened them all with excommunication, but they deposed him anyway. Three months later John called another synod which rescinded what Otto's synod had done. Therefore Otto decided upon force to rid the papacy of its evil ruler.
... The next forty-two years [after 1004] of papal history were filled with intense rivalry, expedient mediocrity, spiritual impotence, vice, and corruption. It seemed to reach its lowest depth with the election of a degenerate twelve-year-old boy, Pope Benedict IX (1032-1045) who after shameful debauchery and erratic administration, sold the holy tiara (i.e. office of the Pope) to the highest bidder. He was known as Gregory VI (1045-1046)....
The Catholic seminary professor Pacwa and other Catholics have an answer that stuns many Protestants. They agree with Protestants that many Popes were ungodly men, and probably went to hell. Since they were Popes though, we are to obey them anyway.
If a Pope is forcibly imprisoned and deposed, then does the new, hostile Pope have the authority and right of succession from the old Pope? Should Christians back then feared Gregory's threat of excommunication? Should Christians have supported Otto's preparing for war against the Pope? Under what circumstances is someone who purchases the title of Pope a successor of St. Peter? Certainly someone who was compared to Simon in Acts 8:13-25 should not be obeyed if he bought the office of Pope???
Q: In Mt 16:20 and Mk 8:30, why did Jesus not want the disciples to tell others He was the Christ (meaning Messiah) at this time?
A: First note that Jesus never told them to lie and deny he was the Messiah, only not to tell about it. There are at least two possible reasons.
1. At this point in His ministry, Jesus wanted them to hear His words before deciding whether or not He was the Messiah. It is sometimes better to let hearers of the Gospel hear Jesus’ words themselves than to spend too much time "contextualizing" and "contemporizing" the Gospel.
2. As Matthew 16:21 shows, the disciples first had to be crystal clear on who Jesus was before they told others.
Jesus publicly announced this by the Triumphal Entry on Palm Sunday. Of course, after the resurrection, Jesus later told them to tell the entire world in Matthew 28:18-20 and Acts 1:8.
Q: In Mt 16:21 and Mk 29, why was Peter’s confession a major turning point in Jesus’ ministry?
A: From the point of recognition that Jesus was the Messiah, Jesus started teaching them that he had to go to Jerusalem to die. They had to believe who Jesus was before they could understand why Jesus had to die for their sins.
The skeptical Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.856, also recognizes this as a turning point of the gospel of Matthew.
Q: In Mt 16:21 and Mk 8:31, at this exact time in His ministry, and not earlier, why did Jesus start telling them that He would suffer and be rejected?
A: Jesus did not say he would suffer and be killed until at least one of His disciples recognized and believed that Jesus was the promised Messiah.
Q: In Mt 16:21; 17:22; 20:19; Mk 8:31, since Jesus would rise after three days or on the third day, does that mean He was dead at least 24 X 3 = 72 hours?
A: No, since Luke 24:21 says that the day of resurrection was the third day. Jesus died Friday afternoon, and rose Sunday around dawn. After three days was a known Hebrew idiom meaning part or all of three days. Here are three examples of the "three-day idiom". Since English rendering differ, all these quotes are taken from Green's Literal translation.
1. Rehoboam in 2 Chronicles 10:5 told the people "three days return to me". Yet in 2 Chronicles 10:12, the people returned "on the third day, as the king commanded".
2. In referring to Christ's death and resurrection, Jesus himself said in Matthew 12:40 says "three days and three nights", Mark 8:31 says "the third day he will rise up", Mark 14:58 says "through three days", John 2:19 says "in three days", and Luke 24:21 says "This third day comes today".
3. In Esther 4:16 Esther says to fast for her, "for three days, night and day" and she would do the same. Yet Esther 5:1 says it happened "on the third day" Esther had a banquet, so this is an equivalent time.
In summary, this Hebrew idiom can mean within three days, and this expression was recognizable from the time of Rehoboam to the time of Jesus. See 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.192, Hard Sayings of the Bible p.380-381, and Bible Difficulties & Seeming Contradictions p.176-177 for more info.
Q: In Mt 16:22-23 and Mk 8:32-33, why did Jesus rebuke Peter here, saying "get thee behind me Satan"?
A: Peter had in mind the things of men, not God. Satan used Peter, Jesus' close friend, to tempt Jesus. However, Jesus recognized the temptation for what it was.
Q: In Mt 16:22-23 and Mk 8:33, how could Peter have the boldness to correct and rebuke Jesus?
A: Jesus chose a bold disciple when He chose Peter. Boldness of itself is neither good nor bad. Boldness in following God is good, but boldness to go your own way is usually not.
Q: In Mt 16:22, why was Peter foolishly rebuking Jesus here?
A: Peter thought that Jesus needed correction and advice. Even today, some can have the attitude that they knew better than God.
Q: In Mt 16:23 and Mk 8:33, what are ways people today can be having in mind the things of man instead of the things of God?
A: We can substitute man's wisdom for God's wisdom. We can decide to do things our way, when it is counter to God's way. We can forget that our hope is in God, not in our strength or wisdom. We can use our own earthly methods. Finally, we can be so eager to do our "duties" quickly, that we do not enjoy being in God's presence as much, and would prefer a "fast-food" type of worship.
Q: In Mt 16:24, why did Jesus mention a cross here, prior to telling His disciples He would be crucified?
A: Jesus knew He would be crucified prior to telling this to His disciples. They all knew about crucifixion already, as the Romans liked to crucify many rebels and robbers as it would be a sign for the others to remain in line. As the Zealot revolutionaries risked crucifixion for a small, earthly cause, the disciples should be willing to risk crucifixion for a Heavenly cause that was more worthwhile. In the end, every one of the twelve apostles was martyred for their faith, except for John, who was exiled to Patmos and died a natural death.
Q: In Mt 16:27, will Jesus come in the Father’s glory, or in His own glory as Jn 1:14 says?
A: John 1:14 says they saw some of Jesus' glory. For example, they saw some glory at Pentecost. Matthew 16:27 refers to an event in the distant future, when Jesus comes again. In other words, you have not seen anything yet!
Q: In Mt 16:28 and Mk 9:1, what did Jesus mean that some would not taste death until they saw the Kingdom of God come with power?
A: There are three possibilities, and it could refer to more than one.
Transfiguration: The NIV Study Bible p.1466 favors this view. However, God's kingdom did not specifically come then.
Resurrection: God's kingdom was "won" by the crucifixion, as proved by the resurrection.
Pentecost: This started the church age, when the Holy Spirit came upon the disciples and dwelt in all believers.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.428-430 and Now That’s a Good Question p.46-47 for more info.
Q: In Mt 17:1-8, why was Jesus transfigured?
A: While Scripture does not say, it could be for a combination of reasons.
1. This revelation was a sign to confirm their faith, and encourage and strengthen the three disciples who witnessed it.
2. It set apart the three disciples as leaders of the rest.
3. The Father and Spirit could have used this event to instruct Jesus and strengthen Him.
Of course, God is not required to explain to us the reasons for everything. See The NIV Study Bible p.1466 for a complementary answer.